Category: iit jam biotechnology previous year paper pyq 2024 video solution

Category: iit jam biotechnology previous year paper pyq 2024 video solution

IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous Year Question Paper 2024 – Video Solution & Text Solution for Rank-Focused Preparation

The IIT JAM Biotechnology (BT) 2024 question paper clearly reflected the current and future direction of the JAM exam. The paper demanded numerical confidence, conceptual integration, and interpretation of biological data, making it challenging for students who relied only on static notes.

As a result, IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2024 video solutions and text explanations have become one of the most searched preparation resources among serious aspirants.

In this article, Let’s Talk Academy presents a structured and exam-oriented guide to using the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2024 previous year paper, along with video and written solutions, to maximize performance.

Why IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2024 Is Crucial for Aspirants

The IIT JAM Biotechnology paper in 2024 confirmed that JAM is no longer a theory-driven exam. Instead, it evaluates how efficiently a student can apply biological concepts in unfamiliar problem settings.

What Made the 2024 Paper Stand Out:

  • Strong emphasis on NAT (Numerical Answer Type) questions

  • Conceptual questions framed through calculations and logic

  • Biotechnology techniques tested via result-based reasoning

  • MCQs designed to check depth, not memory

Because of this, IIT JAM BT 2024 video solutions are essential for understanding the examiner’s mindset.

IIT JAM Biotechnology 2024 Exam Pattern (PYQ Insight)

Section Question Type Skill Assessed
Section A MCQ Concept elimination
Section B MSQ Multi-concept accuracy
Section C NAT Numerical precision

📌 Section C once again proved to be the rank-deciding section, highlighting the importance of guided numerical solutions.

Topic-Wise Trend in IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2024

Molecular Biology & Genetics

  • Regulation of gene expression

  • Transcription and translation-based numericals

  • Genetics problems requiring analytical reasoning

✔️ Questions demanded process understanding, not rote facts.

Biochemistry

  • Enzyme kinetics and inhibition

  • Metabolic pathway calculations

  • Protein structure and energetics

✔️ One of the most scoring areas, but highly error-sensitive.

Cell Biology

  • Cell cycle and checkpoints

  • Signal transduction pathways

  • Membrane transport mechanisms

Biotechnology & Experimental Techniques

  • PCR-based calculation questions

  • Recombinant DNA strategy

  • Interpretation of experimental outcomes

✔️ These questions require visual clarity, making video solutions far more effective than plain answer keys.

Why IIT JAM Biotechnology 2024 Video Solutions Are Essential

Reading answers does not build exam temperament. IIT JAM BT 2024 video solutions help aspirants:

  • Learn how to interpret complex JAM-style questions

  • Apply formulas with correct assumptions

  • Understand experimental logic step by step

  • Avoid common calculation and reasoning traps

At Let’s Talk Academy, video solutions are designed to replicate real exam thinking, not shortcut learning.

Importance of IIT JAM Biotechnology 2024 Text (Written) Solutions

Text solutions play a strategic supporting role and are ideal for:

  • Fast revision before the exam

  • Formula consolidation

  • Making short, exam-ready notes

  • Re-attempting PYQs independently

👉 Best practice workflow:
Attempt PYQ → Watch video solution → Revise using text solution → Re-solve without help.

How to Use IIT JAM BT 2024 PYQ for Maximum Benefit

Step 1: Attempt as a Mock Test

Solve the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2024 question paper in one sitting under exam conditions.

Step 2: Analyze with Video Solutions

Focus on:

  • Conceptual gaps

  • Numerical mistakes

  • Time-consuming question types

Step 3: Convert PYQs into Concepts

Each PYQ should become a revision-ready concept, applicable across future exams.

Common Mistakes Students Make with IIT JAM 2024 PYQs

  • Watching video solutions without attempting questions

  • Ignoring NAT-type numericals

  • Memorizing steps instead of understanding logic

  • Skipping revision of solved PYQs

Let’s Talk Academy corrects these issues through structured PYQ discussion and guided revision cycles.

Why Choose Let’s Talk Academy for IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ Video Solutions?

Let’s Talk Academy is known for its PYQ-centric, exam-aligned preparation model in Life Sciences.

What You Get:

  • Dedicated IIT JAM Biotechnology 2024 video solution series

  • Clear and concise text solution PDFs

  • Strong focus on numerical accuracy

  • Integrated guidance for IIT JAM + CSIR NET Life Science

  • Concept-driven, result-oriented mentoring

Final Takeaway

The IIT JAM Biotechnology previous year question paper 2024 is not just a practice paper—it is a roadmap to understanding modern IIT JAM expectations. When analyzed through expert video solutions and well-structured text explanations, PYQs become the most reliable tool for rank improvement and confidence building.

For aspirants targeting IIT JAM Biotechnology selection, mastering PYQ 2024 with systematic guidance from Let’s Talk Academy offers a decisive competitive advantage.

Q.60 The restriction map of a circular plasmid is shown below, along with the indicated distances between the restriction sites. The plasmid was completely digested with EcoRI, and XhoI. The products were analysed by agarose gel electrophoresis followed by ethidium bromide staining. The number of bands that will be visible in the gel when exposed to UV light is __________.

Restriction Map of Circular Plasmid

Q.59 If a fair coin is tossed two times, the probability that the first or the second toss will be heads is __________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Probability First or Second Toss Heads

Q.58 A population of 1000 plants are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Two alleles R and r determine a particular trait in this population. If the number of plants with RR genotype is 640, Rr genotype is 320 and rr genotype is 40, the frequency of r allele (in percentage) in this population is __________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium

Q.57 The value of lim 𝑥2−9/𝑥2−4𝑥+3 is __________(rounded off to the nearest integer).                               x-->3

Limit as x approaches 3 of (x² − 9)/(x² − 4x + 3)

Q.56 Consider an enzyme that follows simple Michaelis-Menten kinetics, and has a 𝐾𝑀 of 5 μ𝑀. The initial velocity of the reaction will be 10% of the maximum velocity at a substrate concentration of __________ μ𝑀 (rounded off to two decimal places).

Substrate Concentration for 10% Vmax in Michaelis

Q.55 A box of mass 20 𝑘𝑔 is pulled at constant speed across a floor by a rope. The rope makes an angle of 450 with the horizontal. Assuming that friction is negligible, the work done in pulling the box by a distance of 20 𝑚 is __________ 𝐽 (rounded off to the nearest integer). (Use 𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚𝑠−2)

Work Done Pulling a Box at 45° Angle

Q.54 Two resistors 2ohm and 4ohm are combined in parallel. If this combination is connected to a battery of 16 𝑉, the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery is __________ 𝐴 (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Maximum Current from 2 Ohm and 4 Ohm Resistors in Parallel with 16V Battery

Q.53 In the given molecule, the number of chiral centers is __________.

Number of chiral centers in the given polycyclic molecule

Q.52 Ammonia is synthesized in the Haber process in the following reaction. 𝑁2(𝑔) + 3𝐻2(𝑔) → 2𝑁𝐻3(𝑔) The temperature above which the reaction becomes spontaneous is __________ 𝐾 (rounded off to one decimal place). ( 𝐻0 = −92.2 𝑘𝐽, 𝑆0 = −199 𝐽𝐾−1)

Temperature at Which the Haber Process Becomes Spontaneous

Q.51 The data provided in the table were obtained from the following reaction, carried out at 273 𝐾. 𝐴 + 𝐵 → 𝐶 The order of the reaction with respect to 𝐴 is __________.

Order of Reaction with Respect to A from Initial Rate Data for A + B → C

Q.50 A bacterial cell suspension contains 2  105 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠 𝑚𝐿−1. The volume of this suspension required to obtain 1.4  106 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠 is __________ 𝑚𝐿 (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Bacterial Cell Suspension Volume Calculation

Q.49 Three genes x, y, and z are located on a chromosome in a linear order. If the recombination frequencies between x and y is 0.15, and between y and z is 0.10, then the expected frequency of double crossovers is __________ (rounded off to three decimal places).

Expected Frequency of Double Crossovers

Q.48 The amount of agarose required to prepare 250 𝑚𝐿 of 0.8% agarose gel is __________ 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 (rounded off to the nearest integer).

How to Calculate Agarose for 250 mL 0.8% Agarose Gel

Q.47 The number of peaks in the 1H NMR spectrum of methoxymethane (𝐶𝐻3𝑂𝐶𝐻3) is __________.

Number of Peaks in 1H NMR Spectrum of Methoxymethane (CH3OCH3) Explained

Q.46 For a given square, if the area of its incircle is 100 𝑐𝑚2, then the area of its circumcircle is __________ 𝑐𝑚2 (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Area of Circumcircle When Incircle Area is 100 cm² in Square

Q.45 A ball dropped from a bridge hits the surface of the water in 3 𝑠. The height of the bridge, ignoring air resistance, is __________ 𝑚 (rounded off to one decimal place). (Use 𝑔 = 9.8 𝑚𝑠−2)

Bridge Height Calculation Using Free Fall Physics

Q.44 The wavelength of visible light for the green color is 600 𝑛𝑚. The energy of photons of this color is __________ 𝑒𝑉 (rounded off to one decimal place). (Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 𝐽𝑠, 1 𝑒𝑉 = 1.6 × 10−19 𝐽, speed of light = 3 × 108 𝑚𝑠−1)

Energy of Photon at 600 nm Wavelength

Q.43 One molecule of the protein myoglobin contains one atom of iron. A myoglobin sample was found to contain 0.34% iron. The molecular weight of myoglobin is __________ 𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 (rounded off to the nearest integer). (Use 55.9 𝑔 𝑚𝑜𝑙−1 as atomic mass of iron)

Myoglobin Molecular Weight Calculation

Q.42 A cylinder contains 50 𝐿 of an ideal gas at a pressure of 50 𝑎𝑡𝑚. Assuming that the temperature remains unchanged, the volume of the gas at 1 𝑎𝑡𝑚 is __________ 𝐿 (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Cylinder Ideal Gas

Q.41 A wooden plant accumulates 10 𝑚𝑔 𝑘𝑔−1 of 14C during its life span. A fossil of this plant was discovered and contains 2.5 𝑚𝑔 𝑘𝑔−1 of 14C. The age of this fossil at the time of discovery is __________ years (rounded off to the nearest integer). (Use 5730 years as half-life of 14C)

Radiocarbon Dating

Q.40 Which of the following is/are true about Retrovirus? (A) It contains double-stranded RNA genome (B) It can cause cancer (C) It contains reverse transcriptase (D) It contains double-stranded DNA genome

Retrovirus Genome Reverse Transcriptase Cancer

Q.39 Which of the following is/are trace element(s)? (A) Mn (B) P (C) S (D) Zn

 Trace Elements in Plants: Mn, P, S, Zn

Q.38 Which of the following entity(ies) is/are found inside the intact nucleus of eukaryotic cells? (A) Centrosome (B) Lysosome (C) Nucleolus (D) Nucleosome

Entities Inside Intact Eukaryotic Nucleus

Q.37 Which of the following technique(s) can be used to determine the three- dimensional structure of an organic compound? (A) Mass spectrometry (B) NMR spectroscopy (C) UV-visible spectroscopy (D) X-ray crystallography

Techniques to Determine 3D Structure of Organic Compounds

Q.36 Which of the following statement(s) about the effect of genetic drift is/are correct? (A) It can cause changes in the frequency of alleles at random (B) It is a mechanism of evolution (C) It can lead to loss of genetic variation within small populations (D) It is significant in large populations

 Effect of Genetic Drift on Allele Frequencies

Q.35 Which of the following is/are example(s) of a lotic ecosystem? (A) Lake (B) Pond (C) River (D) Stream

Understanding Lotic Ecosystems

Q.34 Which of the following method(s) is/are used to estimate protein concentration? (A) Anthrone (B) Biuret (C) Bradford (D) Lowry

Protein Concentration Estimation Methods

Q.33 Which of the following statement(s) about eukaryotic DNA topoisomerase is/are correct? (A) Topoisomerase I creates transient single-strand breaks (B) Topoisomerase I creates transient double-strand breaks (C) Topoisomerase II creates transient single-strand breaks (D) Topoisomerase II creates transient double-strand breaks

Eukaryotic DNA Topoisomerase I and II

Q.32 Which of the following statement(s) about Golden Rice is/are correct? (A) Consumption of it increases vitamin A levels (B) Consumption of it increases vitamin D levels (C) Consumption of it increases vitamin K levels (D) It is a transgenic crop containing -carotene

Golden Rice Vitamin A Benefits

Q.31 Which of the following is/are lateral meristems? (A) Cork cambium (B) Procambium (C) Protoderm (D) Vascular cambium

Lateral Meristems: Cork Cambium and Vascular Cambium

Q.30 Ionic character of the covalent bonds in the compounds Cl2, HCl, NaCl, NaF follows the order (A) Cl2 > NaCl > HCl > NaF (B) HCl > Cl2 > NaF > NaCl (C) HCl > NaCl > NaF > Cl2 (D) NaF > NaCl > HCl > Cl2

Ionic Character Order: Cl2, HCl, NaCl, NaF

Q.29 Chromosome duplication during the cell cycle occurs in (A) G1 phase (B) G2 phase (C) M phase (D) S phase

Chromosome Duplication Cell Cycle

Q.28 The boiling points of Iodomethane, Dibromomethane, Bromomethane, Chloromethane follow the order (A) Bromomethane  Dibromomethane  Iodomethane  Chloromethane (B) Bromomethane  Iodomethane  Chloromethane  Dibromomethane (C) Dibromomethane  Iodomethane  Bromomethane  Chloromethane (D) Iodomethane  Bromomethane  Chloromethane  Dibromomethane

Boiling Points of Iodomethane, Dibromomethane, Bromomethane, Chloromethane Order Explained

Q.27 In chick embryo, the ectoderm generates (A) alveolar cells (B) germ cells (C) neurons (D) red blood cells

Chick Embryo Ectoderm Generates Neurons

Q.26 If a variable 𝑧 shows a standard normal distribution, then the percent probability that 0 ≤ 𝑧2 ≤ 1 is ___________ (rounded off to the nearest integer). (A) 34 (B) 68 (C) 95 (D) 99

Standard Normal Distribution

Q.25 An object is placed 15 𝑐𝑚 in front of a convex mirror, which has a radius of curvature 30 𝑐𝑚. Which one of the following is true of the image formed? (A) Real and inverted (B) Real and upright (C) Virtual and inverted (D) Virtual and upright

Convex Mirror Image Formation

Q.24 Genes in two species that are derived from the same ancestral gene in their most recent common ancestor are called (A) analogs (B) heterologs (C) orthologs (D) paralogs

Orthologs Definition – Genes Derived from Same Ancestral Gene in Two Species

Q.23 Metabolic acidosis is associated with decreased plasma level of (A) bicarbonate (B) lactate (C) oxygen (D) urea

Metabolic Acidosis Decreased Plasma Bicarbonate Levels

Q.22 Which one of the following is NOT used as a component in subunit vaccines? (A) Capsular polysaccharide (B) Inactivated exotoxin (C) Inactivated virus (D) Viral glycoprotein

Which One is NOT Used in Subunit Vaccines?

Q.21 Adenine constitutes 0.16 mole fraction in a given single-stranded DNA. What is the mole fraction of uracil in the resultant RNA, if this entire DNA fragment is transcribed? (A) 0.16 (B) 0.32 (C) 0.34 (D) 0.68

Adenine Mole Fraction in Single-Stranded DNA Transcription to RNA Uracil Mole Fraction

Q.20 Competition between two populations in an ecosystem is (A) beneficial (+) to both the populations (B) deleterious (˗) to both the populations (C) beneficial (+) to one population, but deleterious (˗) to the other population (D) beneficial (+) to one population, but no effect (0) on the other population

Competition Between Two Populations in an Ecosystem

Q.19 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic morphological feature of apoptotic cells? (A) Disassembly of nuclear envelope (B) DNA fragmentation (C) Increased cell size (D) Membrane blebbing

 Which is NOT a Characteristic Morphological Feature of Apoptotic Cells?

Q.18 Which one of the following genetic crosses and their results indicates cytoplasmic inheritance? (A) Wild-type male  mutant female → 100% progeny are mutant (B) Wild-type male  mutant female → 25% progeny are wild-type (C) Mutant male  wild-type female → 50% progeny are mutant (D) Mutant male  wild-type female → 75% progeny are wild-type

Cytoplasmic Inheritance Genetic Crosses

Q.17 Match the morphology in Group I with the corresponding microorganism in Group II Group I                                                Group II P. Coccus                                            1. Treponema Q. Rod                                                2. Bacillus R. Comma                                          3. Neisseria S. Spiral                                              4. Vibrio (A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1 (B) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 2 (C) P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3 (D) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4

Bacterial Morphology Matching

Q.16 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. Assertion [a]: The resolving power of a transmission electron microscope is higher than that of the light microscope. Reason [r]: The wavelength of electrons is shorter than that of visible light. (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] (B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] (C) Both [a] and [r] are false (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Resolving Power of Transmission Electron Microscope Higher Than Light Microscope

Q.15 Which one of the following immunoglobulins crosses the human placenta? (A) IgA (B) IgE (C) IgG (D) IgM

 Which Immunoglobulin Crosses Human Placenta

Q.14 Which one of the following hormones is a tyrosine derivative? (A) Epinephrine (B) Estradiol (C) Progesterone (D) Testosterone

Tyrosine Derivative Hormones

Q.13 Which one of the following statements about polyploidy is correct? (A) Autopolyploids are derived from a single species (B) Autopolyploids are derived from two different species (C) Allopolyploids are derived from a single species (D) Allopolyploids are not fertile when mated with each other

Polyploidy Explained: Autopolyploids vs Allopolyploids in Genetics

Q.12 The correct hierarchy of taxa in the Linnaean classification of eukaryotes is (A) kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus (B) kingdom, order, class, phylum, family, genus (C) kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus (D) kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus

 Linnaean Classification Hierarchy of Eukaryotes

Q.11 Match the terminology in Group I with the stimulus in Group II that generates growth response of plants Group I                                         Group II P. Gravitropism                           1. Light Q. Phototropism                          2. Touch R. Thigmotropism                       3. Chemical S. Chemotropism                         4. Gravity (A) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1 (B) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 4 (C) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3 (D) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 3

Plant Tropisms Matching

Q.10 The number of significant figures in a reported measurement of 0.00361 is (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

Number of Significant Figures in 0.00361

Q.9 Which one of the following has a catalytic RNA? (A) Ribonuclease H (B) Ribozyme (C) RNA polymerase I (D) RNA polymerase II

Which One Has Catalytic RNA?

Q.8 Which one of the following hormones promotes fruit ripening? (A) Abscisic acid (B) Auxin (C) Ethylene (D) Gibberellin

Which Hormone Promotes Fruit Ripening?

Q.7 Which color of light excites a natural GFP to emit green fluorescence? (A) Blue (B) Green (C) Infrared (D) Red

 Which Color of Light Excites Natural GFP to Emit Green Fluorescence?

Q.6 Which one of the following is present in a bacterial cell? (A) 28S rRNA (B) 70S ribosome (C) Chitinous cell wall (D) Histones

Which Component is Present in Bacterial Cell?

Q.5 RNA is a polymer of (A) glycosides (B) ribonucleosides (C) ribonucleotides (D) riboses

RNA is a Polymer of Ribonucleotides

Q.4 Which organelle in a eukaryotic cell is the site of electron transport chain? (A) Endoplasmic reticulum (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Mitochondrion (D) Peroxisome

 Electron Transport Chain Site in Eukaryotic Cell

Q.3 The most abundant type of RNA in a metabolically active mammalian cell is (A) mRNA (B) rRNA (C) snoRNA (D) tRNA

Most Abundant Type of RNA in Metabolically Active Mammalian Cell

Q.2 In DNA replication, the Okazaki fragments are joined by (A) DNA helicase (B) DNA ligase (C) DNA polymerase (D) DNA primase

Okazaki Fragments Joined by DNA Ligase in DNA Replication

Q.1 Which one of the following is a simple tissue system in plants? (A) Epidermis (B) Parenchyma (C) Phloem (D) Xylem

Simple Tissue in Plants

Latest Courses

IIT JAM / CUET- PG

IIT JAM / CUET- PG

Are you aspiring to crack the IIT JAM Biotechnology exam with flying colors? Choosing the right coaching institute is crucial for your success. Let's Talk Academy (LTA) has established itself as the best coaching institute for IIT JAM Biotechnology, helping students achieve their dreams through expert guidance, structured study material, and personalized mentorship.

CSIR UGC NET Life Science Course

CSIR UGC NET Life Science Course

Let's Talk Academy is the number one CSIR NET Life Science coaching in Jaipur for Life Science. At Let's Talk Academy, you can be sure to get the right coaching strictly in adherence to the CSIR NET Life Science course.  CSIR NET Life Science is an exam that requires in-depth knowledge, consistent practice, and the right guidance to crack. If you are looking for a place where you can get the best CSIR NET Life Science coaching, you are at the right place.

ICMR JRF Life Science

ICMR JRF Life Science

If you are serious about cracking the ICMR Life Science JRF exam, Let’s Talk Academy is your ultimate destination. Join now and take the first step toward a successful research career!