Category: GATE Biotechnology 2011 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

Category: GATE Biotechnology 2011 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

GATE Biotechnology 2011 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

Q.65 P, Q, R and S are four types of dangerous microbes recently found in a human habitat. The area of each circle with its diameter printed in brackets represents the growth of a single microbe surviving human immunity system within 24 hours of entering the body. The danger to human beings varies proportionately with the toxicity, potency and growth attributed to a microbe shown in the figure below: A pharmaceutical company is contemplating the development of a vaccine against the most dangerous microbe. Which microbe should the company target in its first attempt? (A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

Most Dangerous Microbe

Q.64 The variable cost (V) of manufacturing a product varies according to the equation V = 4q, where q is the quantity produced. The fixed cost (F) of production of the same product reduces with q according to the equation F = 100/q. How many units should be produced to minimize the total cost (V + F)? (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 6

Minimize Total Cost

Q.63 A transporter receives the same number of orders each day. Currently, he has some pending orders (backlog) to be shipped. If he uses 7 trucks, then at the end of the 4th day he can clear all the orders. Alternatively, if he uses only 3 trucks, then all the orders are cleared at the end of the 10th day. What is the minimum number of trucks required so that there will be no pending order at the end of the 5th day? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

 Transporter Trucks Pending Orders

Q.62 A container originally contains 10 litres of pure spirit. From this container 1 litre of spirit is replaced with 1 litre of water. Subsequently, 1 litre of the mixture is again replaced with 1 litre of water and this process is repeated one more time. How much spirit is now left in the container? (A) 7.58 litres (B) 7.84 litres (C) 7 litres (D) 7.29 litres

10L Spirit 3 Replacements

Q.61 Few school curricula include a unit on how to deal with bereavement and grief, and yet all students at some point in their lives suffer from losses through death and parting. Based on the above passage which topic would not be included in a unit on bereavement? (A) how to write a letter of condolence (B) what emotional stages are passed through in the healing process (C) what the leading causes of death are (D) how to give support to a grieving friend

Bereavement Unit Topics

Q.60 If Log(P) = (1/2) Log(Q) = (1/3) Log(R), then which of the following options is TRUE? (A) P2 = Q3R2 (B) Q2 = PR (C) Q2 = R3P (D) R = P2Q2

Log(P) = (1/2)Log(Q) = (1/3)Log(R) Solution

Q.59 Choose the most appropriate word(s) from the options given below to complete the following sentence. I contemplated __________ Singapore for my vacation but decided against it. (A) to visit (B) having to visit (C) visiting (D) for a visit

 Contemplated Singapore Vacation Grammar

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. If you are trying to make a strong impression on your audience, you cannot do so by being understated, tentative or __________. (A) hyperbolic (B) restrained (C) argumentative (D) indifferent

Strong Impression Sentence Completion

Q.57 Choose the word from the options given below that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the given word: Amalgamate (A) merge (B) split (C) collect (D) separate

Amalgamate Opposite Meaning

Q.56 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word below: Inexplicable (A) Incomprehensible (B) Indelible (C) Inextricable (D) Infallible

Inexplicable Meaning

A 200 µl of polymerase chain reaction has 100 template DNA molecules and the reaction was performed for 10 cycles. Q.55 How many molecules of amplicons will be present in 0.1 µl of reaction? (A) 102.4 (B) 1024 (C) 51.2 (D) 512

PCR Amplicons in 0.1 µl After 10 Cycles

A 200 µl of polymerase chain reaction has 100 template DNA molecules and the reaction was performed for 10 cycles. Q.54 How many molecules of amplicons will be generated? (A) 1.024 × 104 (B) 1.024 × 105 (C) 2.048 × 104 (D) 2.048 × 105

PCR Amplicons Calculation

The abdomen length (in millimeters) was measured in 15 male fruit flies, and the following data were obtained: 1.9, 2.4, 2.1, 2.0, 2.2, 2.4, 1.7, 1.8, 2.0, 2.0, 2.3, 2.1, 1.6, 2.3 and 2.2. Q.53 The value of standard deviation (SD) will be (A) 0.061 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.61 (D) 0.85

Fruit Fly Abdomen Length Standard Deviation

The abdomen length (in millimeters) was measured in 15 male fruit flies, and the following data were obtained: 1.9, 2.4, 2.1, 2.0, 2.2, 2.4, 1.7, 1.8, 2.0, 2.0, 2.3, 2.1, 1.6, 2.3 and 2.2. Q.52 Variance (Vx) for this population of fruit flies as calculated from the above data shall be (A) 0.85 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.061 (D) 0.08

Population Variance Fruit Flies Abdomen Length

A microorganism grows in a continuous chemostat culture of 60 m3 working volume with sucrose as the growth limiting nutrient at dilution rate, D = 0.55 h−1. The steady state biomass concentration is 4.5 kg dry biomass m−3 and the residual sucrose concentration is 2.0 kg m−3. The sucrose concentration in the incoming feed medium is 10.0 kg m−3. Q.51 What would be the sucrose concentration in the input feed for the output to be 45 kg biomass h−1? (A) 3.225 kg m−3 (B) 4.425 kg m−3 (C) 5.115 kg m−3 (D) 6.525 kg m−3

Chemostat Culture: Sucrose Concentration Calculation

A microorganism grows in a continuous chemostat culture of 60 m3 working volume with sucrose as the growth limiting nutrient at dilution rate, D = 0.55 h−1. The steady state biomass concentration is 4.5 kg dry biomass m−3 and the residual sucrose concentration is 2.0 kg m−3. The sucrose concentration in the incoming feed medium is 10.0 kg m−3. Q.50 What would be the yield YX/S (kg biomass/kg substrate)? (A) 0.562 (B) 0.462 (C) 0.362 (D) 0.162

Yield Coefficient YX/S in Chemostat Culture

Red–green colour blindness is inherited as a recessive X-linked trait. Q.49 What will be the probability of having the colour-blind daughter to a phenotypically normal woman, who already had one colour-blind son, and is married to a colour-blind man? (A) 75% (B) 50% (C) 25% (D) 15%

Probability of Color-Blind Daughter

Red–green colour blindness is inherited as a recessive X-linked trait. Q.48 What will be the probability of having the colour-blind son to a woman with phenotypically normal parents and a colour-blind brother, and married to a normal man? (Assume that she has no previous children) (A) 100% (B) 50% (C) 25% (D) 12.5%

Red-Green Color Blindness Probability

Q.47 HAT (hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine) is used for selecting the hybridomas based on the following I. Only hybridoma will grow since it inherited the HGPRT genes from B-cells and can synthesize DNA from hypoxanthine. II. Myeloma cells will not grow in cultures since de novo synthesis is blocked by aminopterin and due to the lack of HGPRT enzyme. (A) only I is true (B) only II is true (C) both I and II are true (D) I is true and II is false

HAT Medium Hybridoma Selection

Q.46 Value of the determinant mentioned below is 1 0 −1 0 4 7 0 2 1 1 −1 1 2 0 2 1 (A) 24 (B) −30 (C) −24 (D) −10

Value of the Determinant

Q.45 Identify the CORRECT statements P. 5′ and 3′ ends of the transcripts can be mapped by utilizing polymerase chain reaction Q. S1 nuclease can cleave the DNA strand of a DNA–RNA hybrid R. T4 polynucleotide kinase is used for labeling 3′ end of DNA S. Baculovirus (Autographa californica) can be used as an insect expression vector (A) P and Q only (B) R and S only (C) P and S only (D) Q and R only

DNA-RNA Hybrid Baculovirus Insect Expression Vector

Q.44 Maximum specific growth rate (μmax) of a microorganism is calculated by taking the (ln = loge, X = biomass, t = time) (A) slope of ln X vs t of the growth cycle (B) slope of ln X vs t during the exponential growth phase (C) slope of X vs t (D) slope of X vs t during the exponential phase of growth

Maximum Specific Growth Rate

Q.43 Which of the following characteristics with respect to bacterial DNA polymerase III are TRUE? P. Initiation of chain synthesis Q. 5′ → 3′ polymerization R. 3′ → 5′ exonuclease activity S. 5′ → 3′ exonuclease activity (A) P and Q only (B) Q and R only (C) Q and S only (D) P and S only

Bacterial DNA Polymerase

Q.42 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r). Assertion: In synchronous culture, majority of the cells move to next phase of the cell cycle simultaneously. Reason: Synchronous culture could be obtained by starving cells for essential nutrient components. (A) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) (B) both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) (C) (a) is true but (r) is false (D) (a) is false but (r) is true

Synchronous Culture Nutrient Starvation Cell Cycle

Q.41 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r). Assertion: Isopropylthiogalactoside (IPTG) is a gratuitous inducer of lactose operon. Reason: Gratuitous inducers are chemical analogs which behave like natural inducer but they do not serve as substrate for the enzymes that are subsequently synthesized. (A) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) (B) both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) (C) (a) is true but (r) is false (D) (a) is false but (r) is true

 IPTG Gratuitous Inducer Lac Operon

Q.40 Protein–protein interactions are studied by P. DNA foot printing Q. Yeast two hybrid system R. Ligase chain reaction S. Mass spectrometry (A) P and S only (B) Q and S only (C) P and R only (D) Q and R only

Protein-Protein Interactions Yeast Two Hybrid Mass Spectrometry

Q.39 Match the terms in Group I with their associated functions in Group II. Group I Group II P. Shine-Dalgarno sequences Q. Leucine zipper R. Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase S. RNA interference (RNAi) 1. Aminoacylation of tRNA 2. Gene silencing 3. Ribosome binding and facilitation of translation initiation 4. Transcription factors (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Shine-Dalgarno Leucine Zipper Aminoacyl

Q.38 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r). Assertion: A very low amount of inhibitor can act as an activator for allosteric enzymes. Reason: Allosteric enzymes follow Michaelis–Menten kinetics. (A) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) (B) both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) (C) (a) is true but (r) is false (D) (a) is false but (r) is true

Allosteric Enzymes Low Inhibitor Activator

Q.37 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r). Assertion: The elucidation of ribosome structure helps in the development of new generation drugs. Reason: The high resolution of macromolecular structure has enabled structure-based drug design. (A) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) (B) both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) (C) (a) is true but (r) is false (D) (a) is false but (r) is true

Ribosome Structure Drug Development

Q.36 Match items in Group I with Group II. Group I Group II P. Alzheimer’s disease Q. Mad cow disease R. Sickle cell anaemia S. Swine flu 1. H1N1 2. Hemoglobin 3. Prions 4. Amyloid (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

Alzheimer’s Disease Amyloid

Q.35 Match items in Group I with Group II. Group I Group II P. Glycolytic pathway Q. Eukaryotic oxidative metabolism R. Glyoxylate cycle S. Calvin cycle 1. Chloroplast 2. Glyoxysomes 3. Mitochondria 4. Cytosol (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Glycolytic Pathway Location Matching

Q.34 Structured William’s model P. can describe the changes in intracellular components of the cell during growth Q. can not describe the death phase of the cells R. can describe the variation of size of cells in the different phases of growth S. can not describe the lag period of growth Which one of the following is CORRECT? (A) P, Q and S only (B) P, Q and R only (C) Q, R and S only (D) P, R and S only

Structured Williams Model Cell Growth

Q.33 In a well aerated and agitated microbial culture, the ‘supply’ of oxygen is equal to the ‘demand’ (uptake) of the growing culture. The KLa for such a system will be (KLa = volumetric mass transfer coefficient, C* = dissolved oxygen concentration in liquid in equilibrium with gaseous oxygen, C = instantaneous value of dissolved oxygen concentration, r = specific oxygen uptake rate per unit weight of cells, X = dry weight of the cells per unit volume). (A) (rX) / (C* − C) (B) r / X (C* − C) (C) (C* − C) / (rX) (D) X / r (C* − C)

KLa Calculation in Well Aerated Microbial Culture

Q.32 Determine the correctness of the following statements. I. Enhancer sequences are those DNA sequences that are involved in increasing the rate of DNA replication. II. Enhancer sequences work by binding with eukaryotic gene activator factors. (A) only I is true (B) only II is true (C) both I and II are true (D) both I and II are false

Enhancer Sequences Function

Q.31 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r). Assertion: N-methyl-N′-nitro-N-nitrosoguanidine (NTG) is an effective chemical mutagen. Reason: Mutations induced by NTG mainly are the GC → AT transitions. (A) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) (B) both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) (C) (a) is true but (r) is false (D) (a) is false but (r) is true

NTG Chemical Mutagen GC AT Transitions

Q.30 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the Reason (r). Assertion: IgM is found in serum as a pentameric protein consisting of five IgM monomers. Reason: The pentameric form of IgM is due to cross-linking of IgM monomers via peptide bond. (A) both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a) (B) both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a) (C) (a) is true but (r) is false (D) (a) is false but (r) is true

IgM Pentameric Structure

Q.29 Match the products in Group I with their respective organisms in Group II. Group I Group II P. Glycerol Q. Glutamic acid R. Curdlan S. Amphotericin B 1. Corynebacterium glutamicum 2. Alcaligenes faecalis 3. Dunaliella salina 4. Streptomyces nodosus (A) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

Match the Products with Their Producing Organisms

Q.28 Match the items in Group I with Group II. Group I Group II P. Circular dichroism Q. X-ray crystallography R. Freeze-drying S. Ultracentrifugation 1. Concentration 2. Sedimentation coefficient 3. Secondary structure determination 4. Tertiary structure determination (A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Match the Biophysical Techniques

Q.27 Match the microbial growth characteristics in Group I with the corresponding features in Group II. Group I Group II P. Growth associated product formation Q. Non growth associated product formation R. Product inhibition S. Substrate inhibition 1. Specific growth rate decreases with increasing product concentration 2. Specific product formation rate is constant 3. Specific product formation rate is proportional to specific growth rate 4. Specific growth rate decreases with increasing substrate concentration (A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

Matching Microbial Growth Characteristics

Q.26 Match the viruses in Group I with their host cell receptors in Group II. Group I Group II P. Hepatitis A virus Q. Human immunodeficiency virus R. Rabies virus S. Herpes simplex virus type I 1. Heparan sulphate 2. Acetylcholine receptor 3. CD4 protein 4. Alpha-2 macroglobulin (A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Match the Viruses With Their Host Cell Receptors

Q.25 The protein in eukaryotes which is subjected to degradation undergoes (A) phosphorylation (B) carboxylation (C) ubiquitination (D) methylation

Eukaryotic Protein Degradation Mechanism

Q.24 The polymorphic domains for Class II MHC proteins are (A) α1 and β2 domains only (B) β1 and α2 domains only (C) α1 domains only (D) α2 and β2 domains only

Class II MHC Polymorphic Domains

Q.23 Diphtheria toxin, tetracycline and streptomycin inhibit (A) DNA repair (B) DNA replication (C) transcription (D) translation

Diphtheria Toxin, Tetracycline, Streptomycin Inhibit

Q.22 The most widely used program for multiple sequence alignment is (A) BLAST (B) FASTA (C) CLUSTAL (D) Chime

Most Widely Used Multiple Sequence Alignment Program

Q.21 In ABO blood group system, antigenic determinants are (A) nucleic acid (B) carbohydrate (C) lipid (D) protein

ABO Blood Group Antigenic Determinants

Q.20 Gas vacuoles are present in (A) Anabaena flos-aquae (B) Bacillus subtilis (C) Acanthurus nigrofuscus (D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Gas Vacuoles in Microorganisms

Q.19 Molecular chaperones are class of proteins that facilitate (A) the proper folding of newly synthesized proteins (B) unfolding of newly synthesized proteins (C) degradation of newly synthesized proteins (D) targeting of newly synthesized proteins

Molecular Chaperones Protein Folding Function

Q.18 The lipopolysaccharides present in bacterial cell wall has lipid A which is connected to (A) O-polysaccharide (B) core polysaccharide (C) both with O-polysaccharide and core polysaccharide (D) rhamnose-mannose disaccharide

Bacterial LPS Lipid A Connection

Q.17 The study of evolutionary relationships is known as (A) genomics (B) proteomics (C) phylogenetics (D) genetics

The Study of Evolutionary Relationships

Q.16 Wash out (as defined by D = μmax) of a continuous stirred tank fermenter is characterized by (X = biomass, S = substrate concentration in bioreactor, S0 = substrate concentration in feed, P = product concentration in bioreactor) (A) X = 0, S = 0, P = 0 (B) X = 0, S = S0, P = 0 (C) X = 0, S < 0, P = 0 (D) X < 0, S < 0, P < 0

Washout in Continuous Stirred Tank Fermenter

Q.15 Substrate consumption in lag phase of microbial growth is primarily used for P. turn over of the cell material Q. maintenance of intracellular pH R. motility S. increase in cell number (A) P, Q and S only (B) Q, R and S only (C) P, Q and R only (D) S only

Substrate Consumption in Lag Phase of Microbial Growth

Q.14 Restriction endonucleases which recognize and cut same recognition sequences are known as (A) isoschizomers (B) isozymes (C) isoaccepting endonucleases (D) abzymes

Restriction Endonucleases Same Recognition Sequences

Q.13 In N-linked glycosylation, the oligosaccharide chain is attached to protein by (A) asparagine (B) arginine (C) serine (D) threonine

N-Linked Glycosylation Attachment Site

Q.12 In balanced growth phase of a cell P. all components of a cell grow at the same rate Q. specific growth determined by cell number or cell mass would be the same R. the growth rate is independent of substrate concentration S. the growth rate decreases with decreasing substrate concentration (A) P, Q and S only (B) Q, R and S only (C) P, Q and R only (D) P only

Balanced Growth Phase of a Cell

Q.11 ‘Hairy roots’ induced in vitro by the infection of Agrobacterium rhizogenes, are characterized by P. a high degree of lateral branching Q. genetic instability of culture R. an absence of geotropism S. poor biomass production (A) P and R only (B) P and Q only (C) Q and R only (D) R and S only

Hairy Roots Agrobacterium rhizogenes Characteristics

Q.10 Shoot organogenesis by tissue culture results into (A) a bipolar structure that has no vascular connection with the explant (B) a monopolar structure that has a strong connection with the pre-existing vascular tissue of the explant (C) a monopolar structure that has no vascular connection with the explant (D) a bipolar structure that has a strong connection with the pre-existing vascular tissue of the explant

Shoot Organogenesis by Tissue Culture Results Into

Q.9 Hydrated synthetic seeds which are produced by ion exchange reaction involve mixing the somatic embryos in a solution of (A) sodium alginate and dropping it in a solution of calcium nitrate (B) calcium alginate and dropping it in a solution of sodium nitrate (C) calcium alginate and dropping it in a solution of ammonium nitrate (D) mannitol and dropping it in a solution of sodium nitrate

Hydrated Synthetic Seeds Ion Exchange

Q.8 Diploid Drosophila has eight chromosomes. Which one of the following terms should NOT be used to describe Drosophila with sixteen numbers of chromosomes? (A) Polyploid (B) Aneuploid (C) Euploid (D) Tetraploid

Drosophila 16 Chromosomes

Q.7 A cell in G1 of interphase has 12 chromosomes. How many chromatids will be found per cell during metaphase II of meiosis? (A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 24

A Cell in G1 Has 12 Chromosomes

Q.6 An alternative to glycolysis pathway is (A) glyoxylate pathway (B) pentose phosphate pathway (C) citric acid cycle (D) gluconeogenesis

An Alternative to Glycolysis Pathway

Q.5 The product commercially produced by animal cell culture is (A) insulin (B) tissue plasminogen activator (C) interferon (D) hepatitis B vaccine

The Product Commercially Produced by Animal Cell Culture

Q.4 Yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC’s) are used for cloning (A) large segments of DNA (B) mRNA (C) bacterial DNA (D) yeast DNA

Yeast Artificial Chromosomes

Q.3 Apoptosis is characterized by (A) necrosis (B) programmed cell death (C) membrane leaky syndrome (D) cell cycle arrest process

Apoptosis Is Characterized By

Q.2 Members of the antibody protein family that have common structural features are collectively known as (A) haptens (B) allergens (C) antigens (D) immunoglobulins

Antibody Protein Family

Q.1 Embryonic stem cells are derived from (A) fertilized embryo (B) unfertilized embryo (C) sperm (D) kidney

Embryonic Stem Cells Are Derived From

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