Category: IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous Year Question Paper 2025

Category: IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous Year Question Paper 2025

IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous Year Question Paper 2025 – Video Solution & Text Solution for Advanced Preparation

The IIT JAM Biotechnology (BT) 2025 question paper reflects the most refined and application-driven phase of the JAM examination so far. The paper emphasized numerical dominance, concept integration, and analytical interpretation, leaving very little scope for rote-based preparation.

This is why IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2025 video solutions and text solutions have become essential tools for aspirants aiming for top ranks and premier institute admissions.

In this detailed guide, Let’s Talk Academy explains how to strategically use the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 previous year paper, along with step-by-step video solutions and written explanations, to strengthen accuracy and exam confidence.

IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 – What This Paper Tells Us About the Exam

The IIT JAM Biotechnology paper of 2025 clearly confirmed one trend:
👉 IIT JAM now evaluates how well you can apply concepts under numerical and experimental pressure.

Key Takeaways from IIT JAM BT 2025:

  • NAT questions continued to dominate scoring potential

  • Multi-topic integration became more frequent

  • Biotechnology techniques were tested through logical outcome-based questions

  • MCQs focused on deep elimination strategies, not direct facts

As a result, aspirants increasingly depend on IIT JAM BT 2025 video solutions to understand the examiner’s thinking process.

IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 Exam Pattern (PYQ-Based Insight)

Section Question Format Core Skill Tested
Section A MCQ Conceptual elimination
Section B MSQ Multi-concept accuracy
Section C NAT Numerical precision & logic

📌 Section C (NAT) once again played the most decisive role in rank determination, highlighting the importance of guided numerical problem-solving.

Subject-Wise Trends in IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2025

Molecular Biology & Genetics

  • Regulation of gene expression

  • Transcription–translation numericals

  • Genetics problems requiring analytical reasoning

✔️ Questions focused on mechanism understanding, not definitions.

Biochemistry

  • Enzyme kinetics and inhibition models

  • Metabolic pathway calculations

  • Protein structure and energetics

✔️ A high-scoring yet accuracy-sensitive section in 2025.

Cell Biology

  • Cell cycle control and checkpoints

  • Signal transduction pathways

  • Membrane transport systems

Biotechnology & Experimental Techniques

  • PCR efficiency and amplification-based numericals

  • Recombinant DNA strategy questions

  • Interpretation of experimental results

✔️ These questions demand visual and logical clarity, making video solutions significantly more effective than static answer keys.

Why IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 Video Solutions Are Indispensable

Merely checking answers does not prepare you for IIT JAM. IIT JAM BT 2025 video solutions help aspirants:

  • Learn how to decode complex JAM-style questions

  • Apply formulas with correct assumptions

  • Understand experimental reasoning step by step

  • Avoid common numerical and logic traps

At Let’s Talk Academy, video solutions are designed to build exam temperament, not shortcut methods.

Importance of IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 Text (Written) Solutions

Text solutions remain a crucial support tool and are ideal for:

  • Rapid revision before the exam

  • Formula and concept consolidation

  • Creating concise, exam-ready notes

  • Independent re-solving of PYQs

👉 Most effective workflow:
Attempt PYQ → Watch video solution → Revise with text solution → Re-attempt without help.

How to Use IIT JAM BT 2025 PYQ for Maximum Score Gain

Step 1: Full-Length Practice

Solve the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 question paper in a single sitting under exam conditions.

Step 2: Video-Based Error Analysis

Identify:

  • Conceptual gaps

  • Numerical calculation mistakes

  • Time-consuming question patterns

Step 3: Concept Conversion

Convert each PYQ into a revision-ready concept applicable across multiple exams.

Common Mistakes Students Make with IIT JAM 2025 PYQs

  • Watching video solutions before attempting questions

  • Ignoring NAT-type numericals

  • Memorizing steps instead of understanding logic

  • Skipping revision of solved PYQs

Let’s Talk Academy addresses these gaps through structured PYQ-based discussion and guided revision cycles.

Why Choose Let’s Talk Academy for IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ Video Solutions?

Let’s Talk Academy is recognized for its PYQ-centric and exam-aligned Life Science preparation strategy.

What Aspirants Get:

  • Dedicated IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 video solution series

  • Clear and concise text solution PDFs

  • Strong focus on numerical accuracy

  • Integrated preparation for IIT JAM and CSIR NET Life Science

  • Concept-driven, result-oriented mentoring

Final Perspective

The IIT JAM Biotechnology previous year question paper 2025 is not just another PYQ—it is a clear indicator of modern IIT JAM expectations. When analyzed using expert video solutions and structured text explanations, PYQs become the most reliable tool for rank improvement and confidence building.

For aspirants targeting IIT JAM Biotechnology success, mastering PYQ 2025 with systematic guidance from Let’s Talk Academy provides a decisive competitive edge.

Rate of Increase of Surface Area of Cube with Edge 25 cm/s

Q.59 The vector, shown in the figure, has promoter and RBS sequences in the 300 bp region between the restriction sites for enzymes X and Y. There are no other sites for X and Y in the vector. The promoter is directed towards the Y site. The insert containing only an ORF provides 3 fragments after digestion with both enzymes X and Y. The ORF is cloned in the correct orientation in the vector using the single restriction enzyme Y. The size of the largest fragment of the recombinant plasmid expressing the ORF upon digestion with enzyme X is ___________ bp. (answer in integer)

Largest Fragment Size After X Digestion Explained

Q.58 A rare genetic disorder resulting from homozygosity for a recessive allele (r) occurs in 2 out of every 10,000 individuals in a population. Assuming that (i) the disorder is not lethal, (ii) the disorder does not impact reproductive success, (iii) no new mutations are introduced in the population, and (iv) the population follows Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the percentage (%) of the carriers in the population that pass the r allele to offspring is_________. (rounded off to 1 decimal)

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

Q.57 A cDNA was synthesized from the mRNA of a eukaryotic gene. After cloning and sequence analysis, the double-stranded cDNA of 614 bp revealed 125 bp 5′-UTR and 120 bp 3′-UTR. The number of amino acids present in the polypeptide encoded by this gene is _____________. (answer in integer)

cDNA of 614 bp with 5′-UTR and 3′-UTR

Q.56 In a reaction A + B → C, the initial rate of formation of C at 25 °C was measured for different initial concentrations of A and B as given. The overall order of the reaction with respect to both A and B is ________. (answer in integer)

How to Find Overall Order of Reaction from Initial Rate Data

Q.55 A buffer solution is composed of 0.1 M acetic acid and 0.15 M sodium acetate. The change in pH of 1 L buffer solution upon addition of 50 mL of 1.0 M NaOH is ______________. (rounded off to 2 decimals) [Ka of acetic acid = 1.75 × 10-5 ]

Buffer pH Change Calculation

Q.54 An insect weighing 5 g takes off vertically for a distance of 100 cm with a speed of 4 m s -1 by using its hind legs. Ignoring the resistance due to air, the magnitude of the average net force exerted by the hind legs during the take-off is _____________N. (rounded off to 3 decimals) [g = 9.8 m s -2 ]

Insect Takeoff Force Calculation

Q.53 Three particles A, B, C with masses of 100 g, 200 g, and 300 g, respectively, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangular structure with a side length of 2 m. A is placed at the (0, 0) position and B is placed at (2, 0) position in a Cartesian coordinate system. Assume that ΔABC lies parallel to the base. The distance between the center of mass and position of the particle A is ______________ m. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

Center of Mass Distance from Particle A in Equilateral Triangle

Q.52 The number of 7 letter words (with or without meaning) starting with the letter B that can be formed using the letters of the word BIOLOGY is________________. (answer in integer)

Number of 7-Letter Words Starting with B from BIOLOGY

Q.51 The area bounded by the curve 𝑦 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 and the 𝑥 axis between 𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = 3𝜋⁄2 is ___________ sq. units. (answer in integer)

Area Bounded by y = sin x and X-Axis from 0 to 3π/2

Q.50 In a sampling expedition near a peninsula, 180 dolphins from a large population of dolphins were captured and marked by tagging their dorsal fins. The tagged dolphins were then allowed to join back into the population. In a subsequent expedition, 42 dolphins were photographed from same large population. Among these, 7 dolphins contained the tags. Assuming that the population size remains the same and that tags were not lost, the estimated population size of dolphins in the peninsula is _____________. (answer in integer)

Dolphin Population Estimation

Q.49 A population of bacterial cells grows from 10,000 to 100,000,000 cells in 6 hours. The generation time of the bacterial population is __________min. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

Bacterial Generation Time Calculation

Q.48 E 0 value of a Daniell cell Zn|Zn2+ (aq)||Cu2+ (aq)|Cu is ___________V. (rounded off to 2 decimals) [E0 Zn 2+|Zn = - 0.76 V; E0 Cu 2+|Cu = + 0.34 V]

Daniell Cell E0 Value: Zn|Zn2+||Cu2+|Cu is 1.10 V

Q.47 A candle is placed 18 cm in front of a concave mirror to generate a real, inverted and doubly magnified image. The radius of curvature of the concave mirror is ____________cm. (answer in integer)

Concave Mirror Radius of Curvature

Q.46 The limit of the function lim 𝑥→2 ( 2𝑥 2 𝑥 + 2 2 − 𝑥 4 −12) is _____________. (rounded off to 1 decimal)

Limit of a Function

Q.45 The wavelength of a photon emitted during a transition from n = 3 to n = 2 state in the H atom is _____________ nm. (answer in integer). [Rydberg energy constant RH = 2.18 × 10-18 J; Planck constant h = 6.626 × 10-34 J s, c = 3 × 108 m s -1 ]

Hydrogen Atom n=3 to n=2 Transition Wavelength

Q.44 In a farm animal breeding programme, the animal with the dominant A phenotype, the recessive b phenotype, the dominant D phenotype, and the recessive e phenotype are commercially important. The inheritance of these traits follows Mendelian laws. From the tetra-hybrid cross of two genotypes AaBbDdEe and AaBbDdEe, the expected frequency of offspring that will show all the above-mentioned desired phenotypes is __________________. (rounded off to 3 decimals)

Tetra-Hybrid Cross Frequency

Q.43 In a plant species, the genotype DDEE is crossed with the genotype ddee; and the F1 is test crossed. Considering that the two genes are linked and 20 map unit (cM) apart in the chromosome, the percentage (%) of the test cross progeny with the genotype ddee is _______________. (answer in integer)

Test Cross Linked Genes 20 cM

Q.42 A forest has four different tree species (A, B, C and D) and their numbers are: A = 60; B = 20; C = 10 and D = 10. The Shannon biodiversity index of the trees in this forest is________________. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

Shannon Biodiversity Index Forest Trees

Q.41 Free energy change for transport of an uncharged solute across a membrane against a 1x103 fold concentration gradient at 25 °C is _____________kJ mol-1 . (rounded off to 2 decimals) [R = 8.315 J mol-1 K -1 ]

Free Energy Change for Uncharged Solute Transport Against 10³ Gradient

Q.40 Which of the following is/are CORRECT for the two molecules shown? (A) They are stereoisomers (B) Each of them has two stereogenic centers (C) They are mirror images of each other (D) They are diastereoisomers

Stereochemistry: Are the Given Two Molecules Stereoisomers, Enantiomers, or Diastereomers?

Q.39 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT in the classical ‘ABC model’ for genetic control of flower development? (A) ‘Class A’ genes solely determine sepal identity (B) ‘Class B’ genes solely determine petal identity (C) ‘Class C’ genes solely determine stamen identity (D) ‘Class C’ genes solely determine carpel identity

ABC Model Flower Development

Q.38 In ‘Futile Cycle’ chemical energy is dissipated as heat due to two opposite biochemical reactions. Which of the following biochemical reaction(s) is/are a part of ‘Futile Cycle’? (A) Glucose  Glucose-6-phosphate (B) Fructose-6-phosphate  Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate (C) Glucose-6-phosphate  Fructose-6-phosphate (D) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate  3-phosphoglycerate

Futile Cycle Reactions Explained

Q.37 Which of the following metabolite(s) accumulate(s) in the blood of a human adult consuming a ketogenic diet? (A) D--hydroxybutyrate (B) Acetoacetate (C) Pyruvate (D) Oxaloacetate

Ketogenic Diet Metabolites

Q.36 Which of the following condition(s) lead(s) to reduced affinity of O2 for human hemoglobin? (A) Reduction of pH of blood plasma from pH 7.4 to 7.2 (B) Decrease of partial pressure of CO2 in the lungs from 6 to 2 kPa (C) Enhancement of intracellular 2, 3-bis phosphoglycerate (BPG) level from 5 to 8 mM (D) Increase in ambient CO level from 1 to 600 ppm

Hemoglobin Oxygen Affinity

Q.35 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT for lac repressor expressed from the lacI gene? (A) The lac repressor is allosterically controlled and it binds to lac operator (B) The gene lacI is in the ‘cis’ configuration with respect to lac operon (C) The presence of glucose weakens the binding of lac repressor to lac operator (D) The lac repressor regulates ‘in trans’ the expression of a gene cloned under the control of lac promoter

Lac Repressor lacI Gene

Q.34 The component(s) of the apoptosome is/are (A) cytochrome c (B) procaspase 9 (C) caspase 3 (D) caspase 8

Apoptosome Components: Cytochrome C, Procaspase 9

Q.33 The method(s) used to detect a DNA fragment of 150 base pairs is/are (A) agarose gel electrophoresis (B) northern blotting (C) polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (D) western blotting

Best Methods to Detect 150 bp DNA Fragments

Q.32 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about ‘stringent response’ in bacteria? (A) It is linked to reduced growth rate (B) Guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp) alone is sufficient to trigger the process (C) Both guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp) and guanosine pentaphosphate (pppGpp) are required to trigger the process (D) RelA and/or SpoT are/is involved in triggering the process

Stringent Response in Bacteria

Q.31 Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about Deinococcus radiodurans? (A) It has a cell wall consisting of several layers, including an outer membrane that lacks lipid A (B) Peptidoglycan in its cell wall has ornithine, in place of diaminopimelic acid, in the Nacetyl muramic acid cross-bridges (C) It is a Gram-negative organism (D) It can survive an exposure up to 15000 Gy of ionizing radiation

Deinococcus Radiodurans Cell Wall & Radiation Resistance

Q.30 Four alkyl halides, MeBr, EtBr, i-PrBr and t-BuBr, undergo SN2 reactions in the presence of hydroxide ion to yield the corresponding alcohols and the halide ion. The CORRECT order of the alkyl halides based on the rates of reactions is (A) MeBr > EtBr > i-PrBr > t-BuBr (B) t-BuBr > i-PrBr > EtBr > MeBr (C) i-PrBr > t-BuBr > EtBr > MeBr (D) EtBr > i-PrBr > t-BuBr > MeBr

SN2 Reaction Rates Alkyl Halides

Q.29 Which of the following conditions is CORRECT for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition? (q = heat, ΔT = temperature difference, w = work) (A) q = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0 (B) q = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0 (C) q ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0 (D) q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0

Free Expansion Ideal Gas Adiabatic

Q.28 Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated plant transformation? (A) The marker gene for the selection of plant transformant is located outside the T-DNA segment of the transformation plasmid (B) The marker gene for the selection of bacterial transformant is located within the T-DNA segment of the transformation plasmid (C) Two T-DNA border sequences (left and right) are essential to design a binary vector system (D) In binary vector system, the vir genes and two T-DNA border sequences (left and right) are present in the same transformation plasmid

Agrobacterium Tumefaciens Binary Vector

Q.27 The 5′ cap of eukaryotic mRNAs contains (A) a modified guanine nucleotide (B) a modified adenine nucleotide (C) a modified cytosine nucleotide (D) a modified uracil nucleotide

What is the 5′ Cap of Eukaryotic mRNA?

Q.26 Mechanism of antibacterial action of polymyxins relies on the (A) inhibition of 30S ribosomal subunit (B) disruption of peptidoglycan synthesis (C) inhibition of DNA replication of bacteria (D) disruption of membrane architecture of bacteria

Mechanism of Antibacterial Action of Polymyxins

Q.25 Which of the following is the CORRECT combination of a synthetic auxin and a synthetic cytokinin? (A) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) and Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) (B) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) and 6-Benzylamino purine (BAP) (C) 6-Benzylamino purine (BAP) and Zeatin (D) Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) and Zeatin

Correct Synthetic Auxin and Cytokinin Combination: 2,4-D and BAP Explained

Paraphyletic Group in Phylogenetic Tree

Nitrogenous Waste in Bony Fishes, Lions and Birds

Q.22 Match the pair of orgamisms in Group I with their community interaction pattern in Group II. (A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

Community Interactions Question

Q.21 Two charges 10 × 10-8 C and - 6 ×10-8 C are located 16 cm apart. The point(s) on the line joining the two charges, where the net electric potential is zero, will be [Take the potential at infinity to be zero] (A) 10 cm and 40 cm away from the positive charge on the side of the negative charge (B) 10 cm and 40 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge (C) 10 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge (D) 40 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge

Electric Potential Zero Between Two Charges

Q.20 The IR stretching frequency of the carbonyl (C=O) group of a typical saturated ketone is 1715 cm-1 . The IR stretching frequencies for the carbonyl groups present in three different acetophenone (methyl phenyl ketone) derivatives are given. Match the molecules in Group I with their corresponding frequencies in Group II (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1

IR Carbonyl Stretching Frequencies in Acetophenone Derivatives

Q.19 Which of the following cell types is infected by the human immunodeficiency virus-1? (A) T-helper lymphocytes (B) T-cytotoxic lymphocytes (C) Plasma cells (D) B-lymphocytes

Which Cell Type Does HIV-1 Infect?

Q.18 The receptors for gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in humans are (A) ligand gated chloride ion channels (B) ligand gated sodium ion channels (C) ligand gated potassium ion channels (D) ligand gated calcium ion channels

GABA Receptors Humans

Q.17 Which of the following represents the CORRECT order of events in the eukaryotic cell cycle? (A) G1  S  G2  M (B) S  G1  M  G2 (C) G1  S  M  G2 (D) S  G1  G2  M

Eukaryotic Cell Cycle Order

Q.16 Which of the following statements about eukaryotic asymmetric cell division is NOT correct? (A) Chromosomes are unequally distributed in the daughter cells (B) Chromosomes are equally distributed in the daughter cells (C) RNA and proteins are unequally distributed in the daughter cells (D) Cytoplasmic contents are unequally distributed in the daughter cells

Eukaryotic Asymmetric Cell Division

Q.15 The first evidence of ‘gene transfer’ was demonstrated in 1928 by (A) Joshua Lederberg in Escherichia coli (B) Frederick Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) Joshua Lederberg in bacteriophages (D) Alexander Fleming in Penicillium notetum

First Evidence of Gene Transfer

Q.14 The final stage of peptidoglycan (PG) biosynthesis is marked by PG cross-link formation and remodeling. Which of the following enzymes does NOT take part in these processes? (A) Transglycosidases (B) Transpeptidases (C) Transaminases (D) DD-carboxypeptidases

Peptidoglycan Biosynthesis

Q.13 Bacterial cloning vectors and bacterial expression vectors are differentiated by the presence of (A) antibiotic resistance gene cassette (B) origin of replication (C) promoter and ribosome-binding site (D) unique restriction sites

Bacterial Cloning Vectors vs Expression Vectors

Q.12 Which of the following activities is NOT possessed by the human immunodeficiency virus-1 reverse transcriptase? (A) Synthesis of DNA from RNA (B) Synthesis of DNA from DNA (C) Degradation of RNA strand of RNA: DNA hybrid (D) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

HIV-1 Reverse Transcriptase

Q.11 Sequence comparison of which of the following genes is used as a measure of evolutionary divergence across bacterial species? (A) pbpG (B) slyD (C) 16S rRNA (D) 18S rRNA

16S rRNA Gene: Gold Standard for Bacterial Evolutionary Divergence

Q.10 An electric circuit with a resistor of constant resistance ‘R’ is maintained at a constant voltage ‘V’. Based on Ohm’s law, if the current ‘I’ through the circuit is doubled, the power ‘P’ dissipated across the resistor is (A) P/2 (B) P (C) 2P (D) 4P

Ohm’s Law: If Current Doubles, Resistor Power Becomes 4P

Q.9 Which of the following terrestrial biomes has the highest animal diversity? (A) Tropical forest (B) Savana (C) Chaparral (D) Tundra

Which Terrestrial Biome Has Highest Animal Diversity?

Q.8 The correct order of electronegativity of the given elements is (A) B > C > N > O > F (B) F > O > N > C > B (C) F > N > O > C > B (D) O > F > N > C > B

Correct Order of Electronegativity for B, C, N, O, F

Q.7 The standard free energy change (ΔG°) of the binding reaction between different sweet molecules and a common sweet taste receptor are given. Which amongst these molecules is the sweetest at the same molar concentration? (A) Sucrose (- 6.7 kcal mol-1 ) (B) Saccharin (- 9.7 kcal mol-1 ) (C) Alitame (- 11.1 kcal mol-1 ) (D) Neotame (- 12.1 kcal mol-1 )

Which Sweetener is Sweetest Based on ΔG° Binding?

Q.6 What is the ploidy level of a sporophyte in angiosperms? (A) n (B) 2n (C) 3n (D) 4n

Ploidy Level of Sporophyte in Angiosperms

Q.5 Which one of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal gland? (A) Thyroxine (B) Cortisol (C) Insulin (D) Melatonin

Which Hormone is Produced by Adrenal Gland?

Q.4 In humans, Down syndrome is caused by (A) Trisomy 16 (B) Trisomy 18 (C) Trisomy 21 (D) Trisomy 22

Down Syndrome Caused by Trisomy 21

Q.3 After how many cycles of polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the amplified product of required length is generated for the first time from a chromosomal DNA template? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

After How Many PCR Cycles Is Amplified Product First Generated?

Q.2 If 𝑃 = ( − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼) and 𝑃 + 𝑃 𝑇 = I, the value of α (0 ≤ 𝛼 ≤ 𝜋⁄2) is (A) 𝜋/2 (B) 𝜋/3 (C) 3𝜋/2 (D) 0

Matrix Equation P + Pᵀ = I | Find Value of α (0 ≤ α ≤ π/2)

Q.1 The porphyrin ring (tetrapyrrole structure) is NOT found in functional (A) chlorophyll (B) hemoglobin (C) hemocyanin (D) leghemoglobin

Porphyrin Ring (Tetrapyrrole) NOT Found In Hemocyanin

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