Q.60 Amongst the molecules given below, the total number of molecules that have at least one sp2 hybridized atom is __________. C6H6, NO2, BF3, H2O2, SO2, C2H2, L-Tryptophan

Molecules with sp² Hybridized Atoms – C6H6, NO₂, BF₃, H₂O₂, SO₂, C₂H₂, L-Tryptophan

Q.59 How many GTP molecules are required for the translocation of tRNA from P site to E site during translation elongation process in bacteria?

GTP Molecules Required for tRNA Translocation from P Site to E Site

Q.58 A double stranded DNA molecule of total 5000 base pairs long, has a melting temperature of 85 °C. What will be the % AT base pairs in this sample? (up to one decimal place).

Calculate %AT Base Pairs in 5000 bp DNA from 85°C Melting Temperature

Q.57 In an actively growing population from a single bacterium, 1,048,576 cells are present after 20th generation. How many cells were there in 5th generation?

Bacterial Population Growth

Q.56 Assuming the molecule shown below is aromatic, the value of “n” according to “Hückel’s rule” is

Aromaticity of Polycyclic Compounds

Q.55 A 500 nm light is used for imaging in a confocal microscope. What will be the best resolution (in nm) of this microscope?

Confocal Microscope Resolution with 500 nm Light

Q.54 The potential difference to accelerate an electron was quadrupled. By what factor does the de Broglie wavelength of the electron beam change?

De Broglie Wavelength Electron Acceleration Potential Quadrupled Factor Change

Q.53 In a randomly mating population, the frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.7. What is the frequency of ‘Aa’ genotype in the next generation according to Hardy- Weinberg’s law? (up to two decimal places)

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

Q.52 What is the acceleration due to gravity (m/s2) on the surface of a planet if its radius is 1/4th that of earth and its mass is 1/80th that of earth? Assume that the gravity on the surface of the earth is 10 m/s2.

Acceleration Due to Gravity on Planet

Q.51 A man throws a ball vertically up in the air with an initial velocity v1 such that it reaches a height of 12 m with a speed of 12 m/s. If he throws the same ball vertically up with an initial velocity v2 such that it reaches a maximum height of 12 m. Calculate v1/v2. (up to 2 decimal places)

Calculate v1/v2 for Ball Thrown Vertically Up Reaching 12m with 12m/s Speed

Q.50 In a denaturing polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis experiment, pure intact adult human hemoglobin will yield ________(number) bands.

Denaturing Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis of Adult Human Hemoglobin

Q.49 In the 1H NMR spectrum of ethanol at 400 MHz, the methyl group splits into _________ number of peaks.

1H NMR Spectrum of Ethanol at 400 MHz

Q.48 Calculate the temperature (in K) at which the resistance of a metal becomes 20% more than its resistance at 300 K. The value of the temperature coefficient of resistance for this metal is 2.0 × 10-4 /K.

Calculate Temperature for 20% Resistance Increase at 300K with α=2×10^{-4}/K

Q.47 How many pairs of autosomal chromosomes are there in normal humans?

 How Many Pairs of Autosomal Chromosomes Are There in Normal Humans?

Q.46 What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a water molecule can make in the liquid state?

Maximum Hydrogen Bonds in Water Molecule Liquid State

Q.45 An object is placed at the principal focus of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. The image will be formed at _____cm, between the optical center and the focus of the lens on the same side of the object.

Object at Principal Focus of Concave Lens

Q.44 Given that A= (𝑠𝑖𝑛Ө 𝑐𝑜𝑠Ө 𝑡𝑎𝑛Ө + 𝑠𝑖𝑛Ө 𝑐𝑜𝑠Ө 𝑐𝑜𝑡Ө), the value of A is

Simplify sinθ cosθ (tanθ + cotθ) to 1

Q.43 The smallest positive (non-zero) integer “n” for which the expression (1+𝑖/(1−𝑖)^𝑛 = 1 holds true, is ___.

Smallest Positive Integer n for (1 + i/(1-i)^n = 1

Q.42 The average of all positive even integers less than or equal to 40 is ___.

Average of All Positive Even Integers Less Than or Equal to 40 Explained

Q.41 A deck of ten cards is given to you as shown below in the figure. One card is drawn at random from this deck. The probability of selecting a number less than 9 is ____. (to one decimal place)

Probability of Selecting a Number Less Than 9 from Ten Cards

Q.40 The correct statement/s for bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reactions is/are (A) It goes through a carbocation formation (B) There is an inversion of configuration if the reacting center is chiral (C) Reaction is enhanced when carried out in polar solvents (D) The reaction intermediate is trigonal bipyramidal

Bimolecular Nucleophilic Substitution Reactions

Q.39 A single copy of an allele in sickle-cell heterozygous individuals reduces the frequency and severity of malaria. The reason for this is (A) Low oxygen binding capacity of hemoglobin (B) Single amino acid substitution in hemoglobin deforms the red blood cells (C) Abnormal hemoglobin is toxic for malaria parasite (D) Malaria parasite escapes the deformed red blood cells

Sickle Cell Heterozygote Malaria Resistance

Q.38 Identify the correct pairs: (i) Thermophile                      (a) grows optimal at 37 °C (ii) Mesophile                         (b) grows optimal at low temperature (iii) Psychrophile                   (c) grows optimal at high saline conditions (iv) Halophile                         (d) grows optimal at 67 °C (A) (i)-(d) (B) (ii)-(b) (C) (iii)-(a) (D) (iv)-(c)

 Thermophile Mesophile Psychrophile Halophile

Q.37 Match the bacterial structure to function (i) Cell wall                             (a) Virulence factor (ii) Glycocalyx                       (b) Selective permeability                                                  (c) Attachment to surfaces                                                  (d) Protection from osmotic lysis (A) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d) (B) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a) (C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b) (D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c)

Bacterial Cell Wall Glycocalyx Functions

Q.36 The enriched media used to facilitate the growth of fastidious microorganisms are (A) Selenite F broth (B) Blood agar (C) Chocolate agar (D) Loeffler’s serum

Enriched Media for Fastidious Microorganisms

Q.35 Which of the following acts as wound hormones in plants? (A) Ethylene (B) Cytokinins (C) Abscisic acid (D) Dextrin

Wound Hormones in Plants

Q.34 Which of the following are producers in an ecological system? (A) Macrophytes (B) Phytoplanktons (C) Zooplanktons (D) Cyanobacteria

Producers in an Ecological System

Q.33 Archaeal cell membranes contain lipids that are (A) Ether linked (B) Ester linked (C) Branched alkyl chain (D) Linear alkyl chain

Archaeal Cell Membranes

Q.32 Transfer of plasmids into animal cells can be achieved by (A) Electroporation (B) Liposome-mediated process (C) Calcium chloride treatment (D) Sucrose treatment

Transfer of Plasmids into Animal Cells

Q.31 Transpirational pull that extends down to the roots in plants can be interrupted by (A) Process of cavitation (B) Process of gravitation (C) Formation of water vapor pockets (D) Positive pressure in xylem sap

Transpirational Pull Interrupted by Cavitation

Q.30 In a nephron, _____ follows the ascending limb of the “loop of Henle”. (A) Descending limb (B) Distal tubule (C) Collecting tubule (D) Proximal tubule

 What Follows Ascending Limb of Loop of Henle in Nephron?

Q.29 A rise in cytosolic calcium ion concentration just after fertilization in a sea urchin egg leads to (A) Formation of fertilization envelope (B) Acrosomal reaction (C) Formation of vegetal pole (D) Formation of animal pole

Rise in Cytosolic Calcium After Fertilization in Sea Urchin Egg

Q.28 In bacteria, the σ factor that plays a major role in transcription during the stationary phase is (A) σ70 (B) σ54 (C) σ28 (D) σ32

Sigma Factor Stationary Phase Bacteria

Q. 27 In the electron transport chain, flavin mononucleotide (FMN) can adopt ______ as the highest oxidation state and is capable of accepting or donating _____ electrons, respectively. (A) 2; 2 or 3 (B) 2; 1 or 2 (C) 3; 2 or 3 (D) 3; 1 or 2

FMN Highest Oxidation State in Electron Transport Chain

Q.26 The net equation for aerobic glycolysis is (A) Glucose+2ATP 2 lactate+2ADP+2Pi (B) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi+2NAD+ 2 pyruvate+2ATP+2NADH+2H2O+4H+ (C) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi 2 pyruvate+2ATP+2H2O (D) Glucose+2ADP+2Pi+2NAD+ 2 lactate+2ATP+2NADH+2H2O+4H+

Net Equation for Aerobic Glycolysis

Q.25 For an enzyme following Michaelis-Menten kinetics, when [S]=KM then, the velocity v is ([S] is substrate concentration, KM is Michaelis constant, Vmax is maximal velocity) (A) [S] × Vmax (B) 0.75 × Vmax (C) 0.5 × Vmax (D) KM × Vmax

Enzyme Kinetics: Velocity When [S]=KM in Michaelis-Menten Equation

Q.24 In a honey bee population, the workers are infertile but protect the queen from intruders and help in reproduction. This is an example of (A) K selection (B) Sexual selection (C) Kin selection (D) Disruptive selection

Kin Selection in Honey Bee Population

Q.23 Components of a Transmission Electron Microscope are (A) Electron gun, objective lens, positron beam, projector lens (B) Neutron beam, projector lens, objective lens, evacuated tube (C) Electron beam, projector lens, objective lens, condenser lens (D) X-ray beam, projector lens, objective lens, condenser lens

Components of Transmission Electron Microscope

Q.22 The stationary phase of cation-exchange chromatography can be (A) DEAE-cellulose (B) CM-cellulose (C) Sephadex G-50 (D) Heparin-Sepharose

Cation Exchange Chromatography Stationary Phase

Q.21 DNA gyrase can (A) cut single-stranded DNA (B) relax supercoiled DNA (C) introduce negative supercoiling in DNA (D) not utilize ATP

DNA Gyrase Function: Introducing Negative Supercoiling in DNA Explained

Q.20 The major product formed in the given reaction is

Demjanov Rearrangement of β‑Hydroxycyclohexylamine with HNO₂

Q.19 Match the following Group I                                                                 Group II P) Streptomycin                                             1) Inhibits beta-subunit of RNA polymerase Q) Cycloheximide                                          2) Inhibits peptidyl transferase activity of 50S subunit R) Rifamycin                                                  3) Inhibits peptidyl transferase activity of 60S subunit S) Chloramphenicol                                      4) Inhibits binding of formyl methionine tRNA to ribosome

Streptomycin Cycloheximide Rifamycin Chloramphenicol Matching Mechanisms

Q.18 The bacterium that can tolerate high concentrations of salt and also ferment mannitol is (A) Staphylococcus aureus (B) Staphylococcus epidermis (C) Streptococcus pyogenes (D) Serratia marcescens

Bacterium That Tolerates High Salt and Ferments Mannitol

Q.17 Which of the following enzymes is absent in a person suffering from Alkaptonuria? (A) Tyrosinase (B) Homogentisic acid oxidase (C) Catechol dioxygenase (D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Alkaptonuria Enzyme Deficiency

Q.16 A man having a dominant genetic trait (TT genotype) can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC), marries a woman who cannot taste PTC. The PTC tasting ability of their biological son and daughter is (A) Son taster; Daughter non-taster (B) Daughter taster; Son non-taster (C) Both are non-tasters (D) Both are tasters

PTC Tasting Genetics TT Genotype Man Marries Non-Taster Woman Offspring Son Daughter

Q.15 An organism that causes obstruction of lymphatic system in humans is ____. (A) Borrelia burgdorferi (B) Brucella abortus (C) Yersinia pestis (D) Wuchereria bancrofti

Organism Causing Lymphatic System Obstruction in Humans

Q.14 The zone of a pond system where respiration is more than production is called as _____. (A) Limnetic zone (B) Littoral zone (C) Epilimnion zone (D) Benthic zone

Zone of Pond System Where Respiration Exceeds Production

Q.13 A frameshift mutation is caused by ____. (A) 5-Bromouracil (B) Acridine (C) Glutathione (D) Hypoxanthine

Frameshift Mutation Causes

Q.12 Which of the following activity is associated with Klenow fragment? (A) 5′-3′ exonuclease activity (B) 5′-3′ endonuclease activity (C) Polymerase activity (D) 3′-5′ endonuclease activity

Klenow Fragment Activities

Q.11 Bacteria containing a tuft of flagella that comes out from one pole is called ___. (A) Lophotrichous (B) Peritrichous (C) Monotrichous (D) Amphitrichousand yellow seeds (vvgg), the following phenotypic distribution was obtained in the F2 progeny (assume both parents to be pure breeding for both the traits, and self-cross at F1 generation): i) 2340 plants with violet flowers and green seeds ii) 47 plants with violet flowers and yellow seeds iii) 43 plants with white flowers and green seeds iv) 770 plants with white flowers and yellow seeds Which one of the following interpretations explains the above phenotypic distribution? (A) Same genes control both flower and seed colors (B) Genes for flower and seed colors are genetically interacting (C) Genes for flower and seed colors are present on the same chromosome (D) Flower color in this plant species is a polygenic trait

Bacteria Tuft Flagella One Pole

Osmotic Potential of Pure Water is 0 MPa

Indeterminate Growth in Plants

Mangrove Trees Pneumatophores

Barr Bodies in Turner Syndrome Somatic Cells

Genetic Drift: Random Fluctuation in Gene Frequency

Fossilization Processes

Dipicolinic Acid in Bacterial Endospores

Which of the Following is a Glycolipid?

Which Virus Belongs to Retroviridae Family?

Innate Immune Response in Higher Mammals

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