Q.65 The active site in the alpha/beta barrel structures is usually located (A) inside the barrel                               (B) at the amino side of the strands (C) at the carboxy side of the strands (D) at any arbitrary site

Active Site in Alpha/Beta Barrel Structures

Q.64 The amino acid substitution matrices in decreasing order of stringency for comparing protein sequences are (A) PAM250, PAM120, PAM100 (B) PAM100, PAM120, PAM250 (C) PAM250, PAM100, PAM120 (D) PAM120, PAM250, PAM100

PAM Matrices Stringency Order

Q.63 A dioecious plant has XX sexual genotype for female and XY for male. After double fertilization, what would be the genotype of the embryos and endosperms? (A) 100% ovules will have XXX endosperm and XX embryo (B) 100% ovules will have XXY endosperm and XY embryo (C) 50% ovules will have XYY endosperm and XY embryo, while other 50% will have XXY endosperm and YY embryo (D) 50% ovules will have XXX endosperm and XX embryo, while the other 50% will have XXY endosperm and XY embryo

Dioecious Plant Genotypes After Double Fertilization

Q.62 Which of the following statements with respect to the orientation of the nitrogenous bases to the pentose sugars, and the puckering of the sugar, is correct? (A) Anti, and 2’-endo in A form DNA (B) Anti, and 2’-endo in B form DNA (C) Syn, and 3’-endo in A form DNA (D) Syn, and 3’ -endo in B form DNA

DNA A vs B Form

Q.61 If protoplasts are placed in distilled water, they swell and burst as a result of endosmosis. The plot representing the kinetics of burst is

Kinetics of Protoplast Bursting in Distilled Water

Q.60 If a plant is shifted to cold temperature, which of the following changes would take place in its membrane? (A) Ratio of unsaturated to saturated fatty acids would increase (B) Ratio of unsaturated to saturated fatty acids would decrease (C) Absolute amount of both fatty acids would increase keeping the ratio same (D) Absolute amount of both fatty acids would remain unchanged

Plant Membrane Adaptation to Cold

Q.59 Lysine is being produced in a lab-scale reactor by a threonine auxotroph. After 2 weeks of operation it was observed that the concentration of lysine in the reactor was gradually decreasing. Microbiological assays of reactor samples showed absence of contamination and recorded data showed no change in the operating conditions. The most probable reason for decrease in lysine concentration may be attributed to (A) accumulation of ethanol (B) growth of revertants (C) production of citric acid (D) unutilized phosphoenol pyruvate

Lysine Production in Threonine Auxotroph

Q.58 The length of the minimum unique stretch of DNA sequence that can be found only once in a 3 billion base pairs long genome is (A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 18

Minimum Unique DNA Stretch

Q.57 In a genetic cross between the genotypes WWXX and wwxx, the following phenotypic distributions were observed among the F2 progeny: WX, 562; wx, 158; Wx, 38; and wX, 42. Likewise, a cross between XXYY and xxyy yielded the following results: XY, 675; xy, 175; Xy, 72; and xY, 78. Similarly, a cross between WWYY and wwyy yielded: WY, 292; wy, 88; Wy, 12; and wY, 8. In all the genotypes, capital letters denote the dominant allele. Assume that the F1 progeny were self-fertilized in all three crosses. Also, double cross-over does not occur in this species. Which of the following is correct? (A) Relative position: W-X-Y Distances: W-X = 5 map units, X-Y = 17 map units (B) Relative position: X-Y-W Distances: X-Y = 15 map units, Y-W = 11 map units (C) Relative position: Y-W-X Distances: Y-W = 5 map units, W-X = 11 map units (D) Relative position: X-W-Y Distances: X-W = 5 map units, W-Y = 10 map units

Solving Genetic Linkage Mapping

Q.56 Match the immunoglobulin class in Group I with its properties in Group II Group I                   Group II P. IgG                   1. Major antibody in external secretions such as bronchial mucus Q. IgA                  2. Protects against parasites R. IgE                  3. Antibody that appears first in serum after exposure to an antigen S. IgM                 4. Antibody present in highest concentration in serum (A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3         (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2         (D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

IgG IgA IgE IgM Matching

Q.55 Match the items in Group I with Group II Group I                                                                        Group II P Receptor tyrosine kinase                            1 Inactivation of G-proteins Q Cyclic GMP (cGMP)                                    2 Reception of insulin signal R GTPase activating protein (GAP)             3 Thyroid hormone S Nuclear receptor                                           4 Receptor guanylyl cyclase (A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2               (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2               (D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase cGMP GAP Nuclear Receptor Matching

Q.54 For their efficient translation, eubacterial mRNAs possess a Shine-Dalgarno sequence for its recognition by an anti-Shine-Dalgarno sequence (ASD) in the ribosomes. The correct statement is (A) ASD is present in 5S rRNA (B) ASD is present in 23S rRNA (C) ASD is present in 16S rRNA (D) ASD is formed by the interaction of the 16S rRNA with the 23S rRNA upon docking of the 50S subunit on the 30S subunit of the ribosomes

Shine-Dalgarno Sequence and Anti-Shine-Dalgarno

Q.53 In an affine gap penalty model, if the gap opening penalty is -20, gap extension penalty is -4 and gap length is 8, the gap score is _________.

Affine Gap Penalty Model

Q.52 The percentage SIMILARITIES and IDENTITIES, respectively, between the two peptide sequences given below will be ______% and _____%. Peptide I : Ala-Ala-Arg-Arg-Gln-Trp-Leu-Thr-Phe-Thr-Lys-Ile-Met-Ser-Glu Peptide II: Ala-Ala-Arg-Glu-Gln-Tyr-Ile-Ser-Phe-Thr-Lys-Ile-Met-Arg-Asp (A) 80, 80 (B) 80, 60 (C) 60, 60 (D) 90, 60

Calculating Peptide Sequence Identity and Similarity

Q.51 In a mouse genome, the numbers of functional Vα, Jα, Vβ, Dβ, Jβ gene segments are 79, 38, 21, 2 and 11, respectively. The total number of possible combinations for αβ T cell receptors are ______ × 106.

Total Number of Possible αβ T Cell Receptor Combinations

Q.50 The pungency of mustard seeds is primarily due to secondary metabolites such as isothiocyanate and nitrile. The pungency is usually felt only when the seeds are crushed. This is because of (A) the coat of the intact seeds blocks the pungent volatiles from being released (B) the pungent chemicals are stored as inactive conjugates and compartmentalized from the enzymes that convert them into active chemicals (C) the pungent chemicals are formed only after the reaction with atmospheric oxygen (D) the pungent chemicals are formed only after the reaction with atmospheric carbondioxide

Why Mustard Seeds Become Pungent Only When Crushed

Q.49 Match the following plant sources with their secondary metabolites and medical uses. Source plant Secondary metabolites Medical use P. Belladonna 1. Menthol a. Cancer treatment Q. Foxglove 2. Atropine b. Heart disease R. Pacific yew 3. Digitalin c. Eye examination S. Eucalyptus 4. Taxol d. Cough P-2-c, Q-3-b, R-4-a, S-1-d P-3-c, Q-2-a, R-1-d, S-4-b P-2-c, Q-4-b, R-1-a, S-3-d P-1-b, Q-4-c, R-2-d, S-3-a

Matching Plant Sources

Q.48 Match the following photoreceptors with their prosthetic groups and spectral specificity. Photoreceptor Moiety that absorbs light Absorption (nm) P. Phototropin 1. Chromobilin a. 400–500 Q. Cryptochrome 2. FAD b. 600–800 R. Phytochrome 3. FMN c. 500–600 P-3-a, Q-2-a, R-1-b P-1-b, Q-1-a, R-3-b P-3-a, Q-1-a, R-1-c P-2-c, Q-1-c, R-1-a

Match the Photoreceptors

Q.47 Consider a population of 10,000 individuals, of which 2500 are homozygotes (PP) and 3000 are heterozygotes (Pp) genotype. The frequency of allele p in the population is _________ .

Population Genetics

Q.46 Topological winding number of a 2.0 kb covalently closed circular DNA was found to be 191 with a writhing number of -4. Hence, its LINKING NUMBER and the NUMBER OF BASE PAIR PER TURN when the molecule is laid flat on the surface is _______ and_________, respectively. (A) 187, 10.69 (B) 195, 10.25 (C) 200, 10.00 (D) 187, 10.50

DNA Topology

Q.45 In a relatively large but finite and closed population of sexually reproducing diploid organisms, the frequency of homozygous genotype PP changes from 0.40 to 0.50 and that of pp changes from 0.40 to 0.41 in a span of 10 generations. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the above change in frequency of the PP genotype? Non-random mating Random genetic drift Selection Combination of non-random mating and random genetic drift

Population Genetics

Q.44 The plasmid DNA was subjected to restriction digestion using the enzyme EcoRI and analysed on an agarose gel. Assuming digestion has worked (the enzyme was active), match the identity of the DNA bands shown in the image in Group I with their identity in Group II. Group I                                     Group II P. Bands labeled as                A 1. Nicked Q. Band labeled as                 B 2. Supercoiled R. Band labeled as                 C 3. Concatemers S. Band labeled as                 D 4. Linear (A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Identification of Plasmid DNA Forms

Q.43 Triose phosphate isomerase converts dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G-3-P) in a reversible reaction. At 298 K and pH 7.0, the equilibrium mixture contains 40 mM DHAP and 4 mM G-3-P. Assume that the reaction started with 44 mM DHAP and no G-3-P. The standard free-energy change in kJ/mol for the formation of G-3-P [R = 8.315 J/mol·K] is ______.

Standard Free Energy Change

Q.42 Cholera toxin increases cAMP levels by (A) modifying Gi protein (B) modifying Gs protein (C) binding to adenylate cyclase (D) activating cAMP phosphodiesterase

Cholera Toxin Increases cAMP Levels

Q.41 Consider a continuous culture provided with a sterile feed containing 10 mM glucose. The steady-state cell density and substrate concentration at three different dilution rates are given in the table below. Dilution rate (h−1) Cell density (g L−1) Substrate concentration (mM) 0.05 0.248 0.067 0.5 0.208 1.667 5 0 10 The maximum specific growth rate μm (in h−1), will be ______.

Maximum Specific Growth Rate (μm)

Q.40 A T-flask is seeded with  105 anchorage-dependent cells. The available area of the T-flask is 25 cm2 and the volume of the medium is 25 ml. Assume that the cells are rectangles of size 5 µm × 2 µm. If the cells grow to monolayer confluence after 50 h, the growth rate in number of cells/(cm2·h) is ______ × 105.

Growth Rate of Anchorage-Dependent Cells

Q.39 The graph of the function F(x) = x / (k1x2 + k2x + 1) for 0 < x < ∞ is

Graph of the Function F(x)

Q.38 Which of the following statements is true for the series given below?                                         sn = 1 + 1/√2 + 1/√3 + 1/√4 + ... + 1/√n sn converges to log(√n) sn converges to √n sn converges to exp(√n) sn diverges

Sum 1/√n^1/2 Series Convergence

Q.37 If y = xx, then dy/dx is xx(x − 1) xx−1 xx(1 + log x) ex(1 + log x)

Derivative of y = x^x

Q.36 The concentration profile of a chemical at a location x and time t, denoted by c(x,t), changes as per the following equation,          c(x,t) =c0 /√(2πDt)  exp[ −x2 / (2Dt)] where D and c0 are assumed to be constant. Which of the following is correct? ∂c/∂t = D ∂2c / ∂x2 ∂c/∂t = (D/2) ∂2c / ∂x2 ∂2c/∂t2 = D ∂2c / ∂x2 ∂2c/∂t2 = (D/2) ∂2c / ∂x2

Verification of Diffusion Equation

Q.35 The growth medium for mammalian cells contains serum. One of the major functions of serum is to stimulate cell growth and attachment. However, it must be filter sterilized to (A) remove large proteins (B) remove collagen only (C) remove mycoplasma and microorganisms (D) remove foaming agents

Why Serum in Mammalian Cell Culture Medium

Q.34 The reactions leading to the formation of amino acids from the TCA cycle intermediates are (A) carboxylation (B) isomerization (C) transamination (D) decarboxylation

TCA Cycle to Amino Acids

Q.33 The statistical frequency of the occurrence of a particular restriction enzyme cleavage site that is 6 bases long can be estimated to be (A) once every 24 bases     (B) once every 256 bases (C) once every 1024 bases (D) once every 4096 bases

Restriction Enzyme 6-Base Cleavage Site Frequency

Q.32 The algorithm for BLAST is based on (A) Dynamic Programming (B) Hidden Markov Model (C) k-tuple analysis (D) Neural Network

BLAST Algorithm MCQ

Q.31 Reactions between antibodies and antigens that are detected by precipitate formation in an agar gel are referred as (A) immunoprecipitation assay (B) immunodiffusion assay (C) immunoaggregation assay (D) immunofixation assay

Immunodiffusion Assay Explained

Q.30 Prior exposure of plants to pathogens is known to increase resistance to future pathogen attacks. This phenomenon is known as (A) systemic acquired resistance (B) hypersensitive response (C) innate immunity (D) antibody mediated response

Systemic Acquired Resistance

Q.29 The 5’ ends of the mature forms of the prokaryotic mRNAs and tRNAs are (A) a triphosphate group in mRNAs and a monophosphate group in tRNAs (B) triphosphate groups in both mRNAs and tRNAs (C) monophosphate groups in both mRNAs and tRNAs (D) a monophosphate group in mRNAs and a triphosphate group in tRNAs

5′ Ends of Prokaryotic mRNA and tRNA

Q.28 Amino acid residue which is most likely to be found in the interior of water-soluble globular proteins is (A) Threonine (B) Aspartic acid (C) Valine (D) Histidine

Amino Acid in Protein Interior

Q.27 The product(s) resulting from the hydrolysis of maltose is/are (A) a mixture of α-D-Glucose and β-D-Glucose (B) a mixture of D-Glucose and L-Glucose (C) α-D-Glucose only (D) β-D-Glucose only

Maltose Hydrolysis Products

Q.26 The 4-amino or 4-keto group of pyrimidine bases is located in the (A) major groove of the double stranded DNA (B) minor groove of the double stranded DNA (C) minor groove of the B form DNA but not the A form DNA (D) major groove of the B form DNA but not the A form DNA

Location of 4-Amino or 4-Keto Group

Q.25 Which of the following essential element(s) is/are required as major supplement to enhance the bioremediation of oil spills by the resident bacteria? (A) Sulfur (B) Nitrogen and phosphorus (C) Iron (D) Carbon

Bioremediation of Oil Spills

Q.24 A bacterium belonging to cocci group has a diameter of 2 µm. The numerical value of the ratio of its surface area to volume (in µm−1) is ________

Bacterium Cocci 2 µm Diameter

Q.23 Gram-positive bacteria are generally resistant to complement-mediated lysis because (A) thick peptidoglycan layer prevents insertion of membrane attack complex into the inner membrane (B) Gram-positive bacteria import the membrane attack complex and inactivate it (C) membrane attack complex is degraded by the proteases produced by the Gram-positive bacteria (D) Gram-positive bacteria cannot activate the complement pathway

Why Gram-Positive Bacteria Resist Complement-Mediated Lysis

Q.22 The degree of reduction of ethanol is _______

Degree of Reduction of Ethanol

Q.21 Since mammalian cells are sensitive to shear, scale-up of a mammalian cell process must consider, among other parameters, the following (given N = rotations/time, D = diameter of impeller): πND πN2D πND2 None of these

Mastering Mammalian Cell Scale-Up

Q.20 Which of the following is employed for the repeated use of enzymes in bioprocesses? (A) polymerization (B) immobilization (C) ligation (D) isomerization

Enzyme Reuse in Bioprocesses

Q.19 The most plausible explanation for a sudden increase of the respiratory quotient (RQ) of a microbial culture is that (A) cells are dying (B) yield of biomass is increasing (C) the fermentation rate is increasing relative to respiration rate (D) the maintenance rate is decreasing

Sudden RQ Increase in Microbial Culture

Q.18 In a batch culture of Penicillium chrysogenum, the maximum penicillin synthesis occurs during the (A) lag phase (B) exponential phase (C) stationary phase (D) death phase

Penicillium Chrysogenum Batch Culture

Q.17 If the dissociation constant for solute-adsorbent binding is Kp, the retention time of the solute in a chromatography column (A) increases with increasing KD (B) decreases with increasing KD (C) passes through minimum with increasing KD (D) is independent of KD

How Dissociation Constant KD Affects Retention Time

Q.16 The unit for specific substrate consumption rate in a growing culture is (A) g / L·h (B) g / h (C) g / g·h (D) gmol / L·h

Unit of Specific Substrate Consumption Rate

Q.15 The solution to the following set of equations is 2x + 3y = 4 4x + 6y = 0 (A) x = 0, y = 0 (B) x = 2, y = 0 (C) 4x = -6y (D) No solution

Solving Linear Equations

Q.14 The limit of the function e-2t sin(t) as t → ∞ is _____

Limit of e^-2tsin(t) as t→∞

Q.13 The solution for the following set of equations is, 5x + 4y + 10z = 13 x + 3y + z = 7 4x - 2y + z = 0 (A) x = 2, y = 1, z = 1 (B) x = 1, y = 2, z = 0 (C) x = 1, y = 0, z = 2 (D) x = 0, y = 1, z = 2

Linear Equations System

Q.12 If an unbiased coin is tossed 10 times, the probability that all outcomes are same will be ___ × 10-5

Probability of All Identical Outcomes

Q.11 The eigenvalues of A = [ 1  -4 2  -3 ] are (A) 2±i (B) -1, -2 (C) -1±2i (D) non-existent

Eigenvalues of a 2×2 Matrix

Q.10 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available: this kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95% of the time, and HIV- individuals 89% of the time. A particular patient is tested using this kit and is found to be positive. The probability that the individual is actually positive is ________.

HIV Diagnostic Test Probability

Q.9 X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. What is the distance between X and Q in km? (A) 1 (B) √2 (C) √3 (D) 2

Distance Between X and Q

Q.8 The total exports and revenues from the exports of a country are given in the two pie charts below. The pie chart for exports shows the quantity of each item as a percentage of the total quantity of exports. The pie chart for the revenues shows the percentage of the total revenue generated through export of each item. The total quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh tonnes and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the revenue generated through export of Item 1 per kilogram to the revenue generated through export of Item 4 per kilogram?

Pie Chart Data Interpretation Explained

Q.7 Moving into a world of big data will require us to change our thinking about the merits of exactitude. To apply the conventional mindset of measurement to the digital, connected world of the twenty-first century is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earlier, the obsession with exactness is an artefact of the information-deprived analog era. When data was sparse, every data point was critical, and thus great care was taken to avoid letting any point bias the analysis. From “BIG DATA” Viktor Mayer-Schonberger and Kenneth Cukier The main point of the paragraph is: (A) The twenty-first century is a digital world (B) Big data is obsessed with exactness (C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big data (D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis

Big Data and the Myth of Exactitude

Q.6 In a group of four children, Som is younger to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is youngest in the group. Which of the following statements is/are required to find the eldest child in the group? Statements 1. Shiv is younger to Riaz. 2. Shiv is elder to Som. (A) Statement 1by itself determines the eldest child. (B) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest child. (C) Statements 1 and 2 are both required to determine the eldest child. (D) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to determine the eldest child.

How to Determine the Eldest Child in the Group

Q.5 The population of a new city is 5 million and is growing at 20% annually. How many years would it take to double at this growth rate? (A) 3-4 years (B) 4-5 years (C) 5-6 years (D) 6-7 years

Years to Double Population at 20% Growth

Q.4 In any given year, the probability of an earthquake greater than Magnitude 6 occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04. The average time between successive occurrences of such earthquakes is ____ years.

Garhwal Himalayas Earthquake Probability

Q.3 Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the sentence below? “As a woman, I have no country.” (A) Women have no country. (B) Women are not citizens of any country. (C) Women’s solidarity knows no national boundaries. (D) Women of all countries have equal legal rights.

As a Woman, I Have No Country

Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. ____________ is the key to their happiness; they are satisfied with what they have. (A) Contentment (B) Ambition (C) Perseverance (D) Hunger

Unlocking Happiness

Q.1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. A person suffering from Alzheimer’s disease __________ short-term memory loss. (A) experienced (B) has experienced (C) is experiencing (D) experiences

Alzheimer’s Disease Short-Term Memory Loss

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