GATE Biotechnology 2017 Previous Year Papers with Solutions Archives - CSIR NET LIFE SCIENCE COACHING | NTA NET LIFE SCIENCE | CSIR LIFE SCIENCE

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65. A contour line joins locations having the same height above the mean see level. The following is a contour plot of a geographical region. Contour lines are shown at 25 m intervals in this plot. The path from P to Q is best described by (a) Up-Down-Up-Down (b) Down-Up-Down-Up (c) Down-Up-Down (d) Up-Down-Up

Contour Path From Point P to Q

64. There are 3 Indians and 3 Chinese in a group of 6 people. How many subgroups of thise group can we choose so that every subgroup has at least one Indian? (a) 56 (b) 52 (c) 48 (d) 44

3 Indians 3 Chinese Subgroups At Least One Indian

63. Trucks (10 m long) and card (5 m long) go on a single lane bridge. There must be a gap of at least 20 m after each truck and a gap of at least 15 m after each car. Trucks and cars travel at a speed of 36 km/h. If cars and trucks go alternately, what is the maximum number of vehicles that can use the bridge in one hour? (a) 1440 (b) 1200 (c) 720 (d) 600

Maximum Vehicles on Bridge in One Hour

62. S, T, U, W, X, Y, and Z are seated around a circular table T’s neighbours are Y and V. Z is seated third to the left of T and second to the right of S, U’s neighbours are S and Y’ and T and W are not seated opposite each other. Who is third to the left of V? (a) X (b) W (c) U (d) T

Master Circular Seating Arrangement Puzzles

61. “If you are looking for a history of India, or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic parts and the effects this mutilation will have in the respective section, and ultimately on Asia, you will not find it in these pages; for though I have spent a lifetime in the country, I lived too near the seat of events, and was too intimately associated with the actors, to get the perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters”. Here, the word ‘antagonistic’ is closest is meaning to (a) impartial (b) argumentative (c) separated (d) hostile

Antagonistic Meaning in Nehru’s Discovery

60. Some tables are shelves. Some shelves are chairs. All chairs are benches. Which of the following conclusions can be deduced from the preceding sentences? (i). At least one bench is a table (ii). At least one shelf is a bench (iii) At least one chair is a table (iv) All benches are chairs (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (iv)

Solving Syllogism Questions

59. 40% of deaths on city roads may be attributed to drunken driving. The number of degrees needed to represent this as a slice of a pie chart is (a) 120 (b) 144 (c) 160 (d) 212

40% Drunken Driving Deaths Pie Chart Degrees

58. In the summer, water consumption is known to decrease overall by 25%. A water Board official states that in the summer household consumption decreases by 20%, while other consumption increases by 70% Which of the following statements in correct? (a) The ratio of household to other consumption is 8/17 (b) The ratio of household to other consumption is 1/17 (c) The ratio of household to other consumption is 17/8 (d) There are errors in the official’s statement.

Summer Water Consumption Decrease Puzzle

57. I _______________ made arrangements had I _______________ informed earlier. (a) could have, been (b) would have, being (c) had, have (d) had been, been

Fill in the Blanks Grammar Explained

56. She has a sharp tongue and it can occasionally turn _______________ (a) hurtful (b) left (c) methodical (d) vital

Sharp Tongue Meaning and Hurtful Words Explained

55. Which of the following conditions promote the development of human autoimmune disorders? P. Inability of eliminate self-reactive lymphocytes Q. Generation of auto-antibodies R. Ability of eliminate self-reactive T-cells S. Induction of regulatory T-cells in the thymus (a) P, R (b) Q, S (c) P, Q (d) R, S

Conditions Promoting Human Autoimmune Disorders

54. During anaerobic growth, an organism coverts glucose (P) into biomass (Q), ethanol (R), acetaldehyde (S), and glycerol (T). Every mole of carbon present in glucose gets distributed among the products as follows: 1 (C-mole P) → 0.14 (C-mole Q) + 0.25 (C-mole R) + 0.3 (C-mole S) + 0.31 (C-mole T) From 1800 grams of glucose fed to the organism, the ethanol produced (in grams) is ___________. Given data: Atomic weights (Da) of C = 12, H = 1, O= 16, and N – 14

Ultimate Guide to Anaerobic Glucose Fermentation Ethanol Yield Calculation

53. One hundred E. cli cells are each infected by a single λ phage particle. The ratio of the number of phage particles committing to lysogency to those committing to lysis is 4:1. Assuming that the average burst size is 80, the number of free phage particles released after one round of infection is __________.

E. coli λ Phage Infection

52. A DNA strand of length 25 nm wraps diametrically around the circumference of a spherical histone- octamer once. The radius (nm) of the histone-octamer is ___________. Given data: 𝜋 = 3.14

Histone Octamer Radius Calculation

51. EcoRI restriction sites on a 10kb DNA fragment are shown below. Upon partical digestion, what are the lengths (inkb) of all the possible DNA fragments obtained? (a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 10 (b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 (c) 2, 3, 4, and 7 (d) 2 and 3

EcoRI Restriction Sites on 10kb DNA Fragment

50. The interatction energy E between two spherical particles is plotted as a function of the distance (r) between them. When r

Interaction Energy vs Distance Between Two Spherical Particles

49. A zero-order liquid phase reaction A → B is being carried out in a batch reactor with k = 10−3 mol/min. If the starting concentration of A is 0.1 moles/liter, the time (in minutes) taken by the system before A is exhausted in a 100 liter reactor is __________.

Zero-Order Reaction Batch Reactor

48. Growth of a microbe in a test tube is modeled as dX/dt = rX (1 − X/K), where X is the biomass, r is the growth rate and K is the carrying capacity of the environment (r ≠ 0; K ≠ 0). If the value of starting biomass is K/100, which one of the following graphs qualitatively represents the growth dynamics?

Logistic Growth Curve of Microbial Biomass

47. For the probability density P(x) = 0.5 e−0.5x the integral ∫0∞ P(x) dx = __________.

Evaluating the Integral of an Exponential Probability Density

46. If the chemical composition of proteins in an organism is CH1.5O0.3N0.3S0.004, the mass percentage of carbon in the proteins is __________.

Mass Percentage of Carbon in Proteins CH1.5O0.3N0.3S0.004

45. A pedigree of an inheritable disease is shown below. This inheritable disease is (a) X-linked dominant (b) X-linked recessive or Y-linked (c) Only Y-linked (d) Only X-linked recessiv

Pedigree Analysis of X-Linked Recessive Traits

44. Which one of the following CANNOT be a recognition sequence for a Type II restriction enzyme? (a) GAATTC (b) AGCT (c) GCGGCCGC (d) ATGCCT

Type II Restriction Enzyme Recognition Sequence

43. Shown below is a plasmid vector (P) and an insert (Q). The insert was cloned into the BamHI site of the vector. The recombinant plasmid was isolated and digested with BamHI or XhoI. The results from the digestion experiments are shown in (R). Which one of the following explains the digestion results shown in (R)? (a) The insert did not ligate to the vector. (b) One copy of the insert ligated to the vector. (c) The insert ligated to the vector as two tandem copies. (d) The insert ligated to the vector as two copies but not in tandem.

Plasmid Digest Analysis

42. A recombinant protein is to be expressed under the control of the lac promoter and operator in a strain of E. coli having the genotype lacI+ crp+. Even in the absence of inducer IPTC, low levels of expression of the recombinant protein are seen (leaky expression). Which one of the following should be done to minimize such leaky expression? (a) Addition of lactose to the medium (b) Removal of all glucose from the medium (c) Addition of excess glucose to the medium (d) Addition of allo-lactose to the medium

Minimizing Leaky Expression

41. The genome is diploid at the end of which phases of a human mitotic cell cycle? (a) G2 & S (b) G1 & M (c) M & S (d) G1 & G2

Genome Diploid at End of Which Mitotic Cell Cycle Phases?

40. An immunocompetent person becomes infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria. Which one of the following graphs correctly depicts bacterial load in this person over time?

Bacterial Load Dynamics in Immunocompetent Hosts

39. For an E. coli culture in the exponential phase of growth, optical density (OD) at 540 nm is 0.3 at 2 hours and 0.6 at 4 hours. Assuming that the measured OD is linearly proportional to the number of E. coli cells, the growth rate (per hour) for this culture is _____________.

E. coli Exponential Growth Rate

38. Match the plant hormones in Column I with functions in Column II Column I Column II P. Gibberellic acid 1. Seed and bud dormancy Q. Zeatin 2. Fruit ripening R. Ethylene 3. delaying leaf senescence S. Abscisic acid 4. Regulation of plant height P Q R S (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 1 4 3

Match Plant Hormones with Functions

37. The value of c for which the following system of linear equations has an infinite number of solutions is __________. [1 2] [x] = [c] [1 2] [y] [4]

Value of c for Infinite Solutions in Linear Equations

36. Which one of the following organisms is responsible for crown gall disease in plants? (a) Xanthomonas campestris (b) Rhizobium etli (c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (d) Erwinia stewartii

Crown Gall Disease in Plants

35. The specific activity of an enzyme in a crude extract of E. coli is 9.5 units/mg of protein. The specific activity increased to 68 units/mg of protein upon ion-exchange chromatography. The fold purification is __________.

Fold Purification in Enzyme Extraction

34. The concentration (in micromolar) of NADH in a solution with A340 = 0.50 is __________. Given data: Path length = 1 cm; Molar extinction coefficient of NADH ε340 = 6220 M−1cm−1

Beer-Lambert Law Calculation

33. Consider an infinite number of cylinders. The first cylinder haa a radius of 1 meter and height of 1 meter. The second one has a radius of 0.5 meter and height of 0.5 meter. Every subsequent cylinder has half the radius and half the height of the preceding cylinder. The sum of the volumes (in cubic meters) of these infinite number of cylinders is __________. Given data: 𝜋 = 3.14.

Sum of Volumes of Infinite Halving Cylinders

32. Which one of the following amino acids has three ionizable groups? (a) Glycine (b) Leucine (c) Valine (d) Lysine

Which Amino Acid Has Three Ionizable Groups?

31. Match the organisms in Column I with the characteristics in Column II Column I Column II P. Methanococcus 1. Halophile Q. Dunaliella 2. Acidophile R. Sulfolobus 3. Mesophile S. Escherichia 4. Barophile P Q R S (a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 1 2 3

Methanococcus Dunaliella Sulfolobus Escherichia Matching

30. The circular dichroism spectra of three proteins P, Q, and R are given below: Choose the correct combination. (a) P: α-helix, Q: β-sheet, and R: Random coil (b) P: β-sheet, Q: α-helix, and R: Random coil (c) P: α-helix, R: Random coil and R: β-sheet (d) P: Random coil, Q: α-helix, and R: β-sheet

Circular Dichroism Spectra Interpretation

29. Match the proteins in Group I with cellular processes in Group II Group I Group II P. p53 1. DNA packaging Q. Lysozyme 2. Apoptosis R. Tubulins 3. Hydrolysis of polysaccharides S. Histones 4. Chromosome segregation P Q R S (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 4 1

p53 Lysozyme Tubulins Histones

28. The angle (in degrees) between the vectors 𝑥⃗ = 𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ and 𝑦⃗ = 2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ − 1.5𝑘̂ is __________.

Angle Between Vectors

27. The distribution of marks scored by a large class in an exam can be represented as a normal distribution with means 𝜇 and standard deviation 𝜎. In a follow-up exam in the same class, everyone scored 2 marks more than their respective score in the earlier exam. For this follow-up exam, the distribution of marks can be represented as a normal distribution with means 𝜇2 and standard deviation 𝜎2. Which one of the following is correct? (a) 𝜇 = 𝜇2; 𝜎 > 𝜎2. (b) 𝜇 < 𝜇2; 𝜎 > 𝜎2. (c) 𝜇 > 𝜇2; 𝜎 < 𝜎2. (d) 𝜇 < 𝜇2; 𝜎 = 𝜎2.

Normal Distribution Marks Shift

26. Which one of the following graphs represents the kinetics of protein precipitation by addition of ammonium sulphate? On the Y-axis, [Protein} represents the concentration of free protein in solution.

Kinetics of Protein Precipitation by Ammonium Sulphate

25. At the transcription start site of a gene, any of the four nucleotides can occur with equal probability p. The Shannon Entropy S, given by S = −Σi=14 pi ln pi, for this start site is ___________. Given data: ln(2) = 0.69

Shannon Entropy Calculation

24. A bacterium has a genome of size 6 million base pairs. If the average rate of DNA synthesis is 1000 base pairs/second, the time taken (in minutes) for replication of the genome will be _________.

Bacterial Genome Replication Time

23. The transcription factor X binds a 10 base pair DNA stretch. In the DNA of an organism, X was found to bind at 20 distinct sites. An analysis of these 20 binding sites showed the following distribution: Base 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 A 11 0 0 0 16 2 4 0 4 3 T 3 0 19 0 0 1 3 20 2 4 G 4 20 0 0 2 4 6 0 12 2 C 2 0 1 20 1 11 6 0 2 11 What is the consensus sequence for the binding site of X? (a) NGTCNNNTNN (b) AGTCACNTGC (c) CACCTANCTG (d) ANNNAACGNGC

Consensus Sequence Determination

22. A 5 liter chemostat is fed fresh medium at 0.2 liters/minute having a substrate concentration of 25 grams/liter. At steady state, the outgoing stream has substrate concentration of 2.5 grams/liter. The rate of consumption (grams/liter/minute) of the substrate in the reactor is ___________.

Chemostat Substrate Consumption Rate

21. An enzymatic reaction exhibits Michaelis-Menten kinetics. For this reaction, on doubling the concentration of enzyme while maintaining [S] >> [E0], (a) Both Km and Vmax will remain the same. (b) Km will remain the same but Vmax will increase. (c) Km will increase but Vmax will remain the same.

Michaelis-Menten Kinetics

21. An enzymatic reaction exhibits Michaelis-Menten kinetics. For this reaction, on doubling the concentration of enzyme while maintaining [S] >> [E0], (a) Both Km and Vmax will remain the same. (b) Km will remain the same but Vmax will increase. (c) Km will increase but Vmax will remain the same.

Michaelis-Menten Kinetics

20. A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was set up with the following reagents: DNA template, Taq polymerase, buffer, dNTPs, and Mg2+. Which one of the following is missing in the reaction mixture? (a) Helicase (b) Single-stranded binding proteins (c) Primers (d) Reverse transcriptase

PCR Reaction Mixture

19. A proto-oncogene is suspected to have undergone duplication in a certain type of cancer. Of the following techniques, which one would verify the gene duplication? (a) Northern blotting (b) Southern blotting (c) South western blotting (d) Western blotting

Southern Blotting

18. In eukaryogtes, cytokinesis is inhibited by (a) Cytochalasin D (b) Vinblastine (c) Nocodazole (d) Colchicines

Cytokinesis is Inhibited by Cytochalasin D

17. During protein synthesis, tRNAs are NOT involved in (a) Charging (b) Initiation (c) Elongation (d) Termination

tRNAs are NOT Involved in Which Stage of Protein Synthesis?

16. For y = f(x), if d²y⁄dx² = 0, dy⁄dx = 0 at x = 0, and y = 1 at x = 1, the value of y at x = 2 is ________.

If d²y/dx² = 0 and dy/dx = 0 at x=0 with y=1 at x=1

15. Secretory proteins synthesized by ER-associated ribosomes traverse through (a) Mitochondria (b) Peroxisomes (c) The Golgi apparatus (d) The nucleus

Secretory Proteins Pathway

14. If a protein contains four cysteine residues, the number of different ways they can simultaneously form two intra-molecular disulphide bonds is _________.

How Many Ways Can 4 Cysteine Residues Form 2 Disulfide Bonds?

13. Macrophages eliminate pathogenic bacteria upon activation by (a) NK cells (b) Basophils (c) CD4+ T cells (d) Plasma cells

Macrophages Eliminate Pathogenic Bacteria

12. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is used for (a) Quantifying antibody levels in blood (b) Determining the molecular weight of an antigen (c) Purifying proteins from biological fluids (d) Determining the molecular weight of an antibody

ELISA is Used for

10. Assertion (a): Gram negative bacteria show staining with saffranin. Reason (r): Gram negative bacteria have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides. (a) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a). (b) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a). (c) Both (a) and (r) are false. (d) (a) is true but (r) is false.

Gram Negative Bacteria Staining

9. Which one of the following techniques can be used to determine the structure of 15 kDa globular protein at atomic resolution” (a) Raman spectroscopy (b) IR spectroscopy (c) UV spectroscopy (d) NMR spectroscopy

NMR Spectroscopy

8. If the nucleotide composition (%) of a viral genome is A = 10, U = 20, C = 40 and G = 30, which one of the following is this genome? (a) Double stranded RNA (b) Single stranded RNA (c) Single stranded DNA (d) Double stranded DNA

Viral Genome Composition

7. Which one of the following mechanisms is used by human pathogens to evade host immune responses? (a) Somatic hypermutation (b) Antibody production (c) Antigenic variation (d) Complement activation

Human Pathogens Evade Immune Responses

6. limx → 0 sin(x) / x is __________.

Limit of sin(x)/x as x→0 Equals 1

5. In a thin layer chromatography experiment using a silica gel plate, a compound showed migration of 12.5 cm and the solvent front showed migration of 18 cm. The Rf value for the compound is _______.

TLC Rf Explained

4. The surface area (in m²) of the largest sphere that can fit into a hollow cube with edges of length 1 meter is __________. Given data: π = 3.14

Largest Sphere Surface Area

3. Which one of the following organisms in an indicator of fecal contamination” (a) Escherichia coli (b) Streptococcs lactic (c) Bacillus subtilis (d) Lactobacillus acidophilus

Escherichia coli as Fecal Contamination Indicator

2. Natural proteins are composed primarily of 20 α-amino acids. Which one of the following statements in true for any of these amino acids in a solution of pH 1.5? (a) Only the amino group is ionized. (b) Only the carboxylic acid group is ionized. (c) Both amino and carboxylic acid group are ionized. (d) Both amino and carboxylic acid groups are neutral.

Amino Acid Ionization at pH 1.5

1. An enzyme catalyzes a reaction by (a) decreasing the energy of the substrate. (b) deveasing the activation energy of the reaction. (c) decreasing product stability. (d) increasing the activation barrier of the reaction.

How Enzymes Catalyze Reactions

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