Category: GATE Life Science 2024 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

Category: GATE Life Science 2024 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

GATE Life Science 2024 Previous Year Papers with Solutions – Complete Preparation Guide

The GATE Life Science (XL) 2024 examination reaffirmed that success in GATE depends heavily on conceptual clarity, analytical ability, and smart practice. Among all preparation tools, GATE Life Science previous year papers with detailed solutions remain the most authentic and effective resource for understanding the real nature of the exam.

At Let’s Talk Academy, GATE preparation is strategically designed around PYQ-based learning, ensuring students focus only on exam-relevant concepts.

Why GATE Life Science 2024 Previous Year Papers Are Important

GATE Life Science questions are carefully framed to test:

  • Depth of conceptual understanding
  • Application of fundamentals across disciplines
  • Numerical and analytical reasoning
  • Interpretation of biological data

Solving GATE Life Science 2024 PYQs helps aspirants:

  • Understand the latest exam trend and difficulty level
  • Identify high-weightage and recurring topics
  • Improve time management under exam conditions
  • Avoid common mistakes and conceptual traps
  • Align preparation with the actual GATE question style

For serious aspirants, PYQs are the most reliable benchmark of preparation.

GATE Life Science (XL) – Subjects Covered in Previous Year Papers

The GATE Life Science paper includes questions from diverse biological domains. PYQs from 2024 and earlier years cover:

  • Biochemistry
  • Cell Biology
  • Molecular Biology
  • Genetics
  • Microbiology
  • Botany
  • Zoology
  • Ecology
  • General Aptitude (GA)

Practicing subject-wise PYQs allows focused improvement, while year-wise papers help simulate the real exam experience.

Importance of Solved GATE Life Science PYQs

Attempting questions without proper solutions limits learning. Detailed, concept-based solutions help aspirants to:

  • Understand the logic behind correct answers
  • Strengthen weak concepts instantly
  • Learn numerical problem-solving techniques
  • Improve accuracy in MSQs and NATs
  • Develop exam-oriented thinking

A single well-analyzed PYQ often reinforces multiple concepts simultaneously.

Where Can I Find Authentic GATE Life Science Previous Year Papers Online?

This is one of the most common and important questions among aspirants.

Where can I find authentic GATE Life Science previous year papers online?

Below are the most trusted and legitimate sources:

1. Official GATE Website

The official GATE portal releases year-wise original question papers after every exam. These papers are 100% authentic and should be the primary source for practice. However, they usually do not provide detailed explanations.

2. Reputed Educational Platforms

Several established educational websites provide downloadable PDFs of GATE Life Science PYQs, often arranged year-wise and subject-wise. These are useful for offline practice but may vary in solution quality.

3. Let’s Talk Academy Online Resources

Let’s Talk Academy offers authentic GATE Life Science previous year papers with expert-reviewed solutions through:

  • Topic-wise PYQ PDFs
  • Concept-based video explanations
  • YouTube discussions on recent GATE questions

These resources are curated strictly from official GATE papers, ensuring accuracy and exam relevance.

4. Self-Verification Strategy

For self-study aspirants:

  • Download papers only from official or reputed sources
  • Cross-check answers using standard textbooks
  • Compare solutions from multiple trusted educators
  • Avoid unofficial or memory-based question sets

Authenticity is critical for reliable preparation.

How to Use GATE Life Science 2024 PYQs Effectively

To maximize the benefit of previous year papers:

  • Start with topic-wise PYQs during concept-building
  • Move to full-length 2024 paper practice in exam conditions
  • Analyze every incorrect and guessed question
  • Maintain a PYQ mistake and concept notebook
  • Revise linked theory immediately after analysis

The quality of analysis matters more than the number of papers solved.

Who Should Practice GATE Life Science 2024 PYQs?

  • BSc and MSc Life Science / Biotechnology students
  • GATE aspirants targeting IITs, IISc, IISERs, and PSUs
  • CSIR NET, DBT BET JRF, and ICMR JRF aspirants
  • Research and PhD-oriented candidates

GATE PYQs build a strong conceptual base that benefits multiple competitive exams.

Why Let’s Talk Academy Emphasizes PYQ-Based Learning

Based on years of experience in Life Science competitive exam preparation, Let’s Talk Academy strongly recommends PYQ-driven study because it:

  • Filters out irrelevant syllabus content
  • Improves conceptual retention
  • Enhances exam confidence
  • Aligns preparation with actual GATE expectations

This approach consistently helps aspirants achieve higher accuracy and better ranks.

Final Conclusion

For GATE Life Science 2024, previous year question papers with detailed solutions are the most authentic roadmap to success. If you know where to find genuine PYQs online and how to analyze them correctly, half of your preparation is already complete.

Whether you are preparing through coaching or self-study, make PYQs the backbone of your strategy—and let them guide your preparation for future GATE attempts.

Q.103 Consider a healthy person with the following lung volumes: Residual volume = 900 mL Expiratory reserve volume = 800 mL Tidal volume = 200 mL If the Total lung capacity is 5500 mL, then the Inspiratory reserve volume of the person is _____ mL. (Answer in integer)

Calculate Inspiratory Reserve Volume

Q.102 The pKa of a buffer solution with pH of 5, consisting of 0.4 M sodium acetate and 0.04 M acetic acid, is ______. (Answer in integer)

pKa of Buffer Solution

Q.101 Consider the following nucleotide sequence: 5′-GCCGCCAUGGCGUCUGCUAGCUGGCUCGAUCGCGAGCGAUCGUAC GUAUAGUAUGAA-3′ Assume canonical initiation, canonical termination, no post-translational modification, and the average molecular mass of an amino acid to be 110 daltons. The theoretical molecular mass of the polypeptide translated from the above nucleotide sequence is _____ daltons. (Answer in integer)

Theoretical Molecular Mass of Polypeptide

Q.100 Which one or more of the following parasites is/are typically transmitted by mosquitoes as vector? (A) Leishmania donovani (B) Plasmodium vivax (C) Wuchereria bancrofti (D) Trichuris trichiura

Parasites Transmitted by Mosquitoes

Q.99 The embryos of which one or more of the following animals show meroblastic cleavage? (A) Danio rerio (zebrafish) (B) Gallus gallus (chicken) (C) Synapta digita (sea cucumber) (D) Xenopus laevis (frog)

Meroblastic Cleavage in Zebrafish and Chicken Embryos

Q.98 Consider a species of brightly colored beetle. Which one or more of the following observations suggest(s) that this species is aposematic? (A) Both male and female beetles are brightly colored. (B) Only male beetles are brightly colored. (C) Only female beetles are brightly colored. (D) The beetle species is toxic and distasteful.

Aposematic Beetles Explained

Q.97 Which one of the following rooted tree topologies best describes the primate phylogeny? (A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Correct Rooted Tree Topology for Primate Phylogeny

Q.96 When the blood glucose level of a healthy person is 100 mg/dL, which one of the following options is most likely to represent the level of glucose in the urine of that person? (A) < 1 mg/dL (B) 10 mg/dL (C) 50 mg/dL (D) 100 mg/dL

Blood Glucose 100 mg/dL Urine Glucose Level

Q.95 Consider a large population of a finch species, where both small and big beak sizes are advantageous, and an intermediate beak size is maladaptive. Over a period of 10 years, which one of the following evolutionary processes is most likely to operate on the beak size of this finch population? (A) directional selection (B) disruptive selection (C) genetic drift (D) stabilizing selection

Disruptive Selection in Finch Beak Size Evolution

Q.94 Which one of the options correctly matches the human tissues/organs with their embryonic germ layers of origin? Tissues/organs Embryonic germ layers (P) liver (I) ectoderm (Q) cerebellum (II) endoderm (R) femur (III) mesoderm (A) P–II, Q–I, R–III (B) P–III, Q–I, R–II (C) P–I, Q–II, R–III (D) P–II, Q–III, R–I

 Germ layer origin of liver, cerebellum and femur

Q.93 Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE of glycosaminoglycans? (A) Glycosaminoglycans are composed of repeating disaccharide units. (B) Glycosaminoglycans consist of amino sugars that are frequently sulfated. (C) Hyaluronic acid is an example of a glycosaminoglycan. (D) Methionine is the predominant amino acid to which glycosaminoglycan chains are conjugated to form proteoglycans.

Glycosaminoglycans Structure

Q.92 The human genetic code is triplet in nature with 64 codons made using four nucleotides. If the human genetic code was doublet in nature, the number of codons theoretically possible from four nucleotides is ______. (Answer in integer)

Doublet Genetic Code

Q.91 Urease enzyme catalyzes the conversion of urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. Which one of the following organisms expresses urease enzyme? (A) Caenorhabditis elegans (B) Drosophila melanogaster (C) Helicobacter pylori (D) Homo sapiens

Urease Enzyme in Helicobacter pylori

Q.90 Which one of the following statements describes the key function of human sweat glands? (A) They serve as touch sensors. (B) They are responsible for skin color. (C) They regulate body temperature. (D) They store fat.

 Key Function of Human Sweat Glands

Q.89 In certain species of salamanders, male-female pairs have multiple mating partners in a breeding season. Which one of the following terminologies accurately describes this mating system? (A) monogamy (B) polyandry (C) polygyny (D) polygynandry

Salamander Mating Systems

Q.88 CREB1 is a eukaryotic transcription factor. In which one of the following compartments of the cell is CREB1 predominantly localized? (A) lysosomes (B) mitochondria (C) nucleus (D) peroxisomes

CREB1 Transcription Factor

Q.87 Codon bias is correlated with the relative frequencies of which one of the following types of RNA? (A) mRNA (B) rRNA (C) siRNA (D) tRNA

Codon Bias Correlated with tRNA Frequencies

Q.86 Which one of the following tissues/organs is least likely to experience graft rejection when transplanted from a person to an unrelated person? (A) bone marrow (B) cornea (C) heart (D) kidney

Graft Rejection in Transplants

Q.85 Which one of the following statements about gene expression is INCORRECT? (A) DNA is transcribed to mRNA. (B) mRNA can be reverse-transcribed to DNA. (C) mRNA can be translated to protein. (D) Protein can be reverse-translated to mRNA.

 Gene Expression Incorrect Statement

Q.84 A fluorescence microscope with an objective lens of numerical aperture (NA) 1.5 is used with light of wavelength (λ) 600 nanometers. The lateral resolution limit of this microscope rounded off to the nearest integer, is _________ nanometers.

Fluorescence Microscope Lateral Resolution Limit NA 1.5 600 nm

Q.83 A landfill sample was analyzed by dilution and plating techniques for viable bacterial count. When one gram of the landfill sample was diluted 1 x 10-4 (w/v) it yielded 400 CFU. The viable bacterial count (in million, rounded off to the nearest integer) in one gram landfill sample is _______.

Viable Bacterial Count in Landfill Sample

Q.82 At t = 0, the bacterial cell number is 10,000 cells/mL. At t = 480 minutes, the cell number increased to 320,000 cells/mL. The mean generation time during this exponential growth period, rounded off to the nearest integer is ________ minutes.

Bacterial Growth Generation Time Calculation

Q.81 Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Escherichia coli chromosome? (A) It is typically bound by histones (B) It is circular in nature (C) It is found in the nucleoid (D) It contains multiple origins of replication

Escherichia coli Chromosome Structure

Q.80 At root nodules, which of the following C4 organic acid(s) is/are transported across the symbiosome membrane and into bacteroids? (A) Succinate (B) Pyruvate (C) Malate (D) Fumarate

 C4 Organic Acids Transported into Bacteroids

Q.79 Which of the following is/are consequence(s) of nitrous acid (HNO2) mediated deamination? (A) Deamination of cytosine, adenine and guanine (B) GC-to-AT transitions (C) AT- to- GC transitions (D) Addition of alkyl group to the bases

Nitrous Acid HNO2 Deamination

Q.78 Which of the following event(s) occur(s) during translation in prokaryotes? (A) tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 30s subunit of ribosome (B) Anticodon of tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 50s subunit of ribosome (C) The ribosome continues to move along the mRNA to add new amino acids to the polypeptide (D) The polypeptide is released when the ribosome reaches the stop codon

Translation in Prokaryotes

Q.77 Which of the following cocci is/are examples of division in one plane? (A) Staphylococci (B) Streptococci (C) Micrococci (D) Diplococci

Cocci Division in One Plane

Q.76 Which of the following is/are active transport mechanism(s) in prokaryotes where the substance is chemically altered during transport across the membrane? (A) Group translocation (B) Simple diffusion (C) Facilitated diffusion (D) Osmosis

Group Translocation

Q.75 Which one of the following redox couples has the highest tendency to donate electrons? (A) Fumarate / succinate (B) NAD+ / NADH (C) FAD / FADH (D) Pyruvate / lactate

Which Redox Couple Has Highest Tendency to Donate Electrons

Q.74 Match the antibiotics in Group I with the microorganisms that produce them in Group II. Group I Group II (P) Streptomycin (i) Streptomyces griseus (Q) Bacitracin (ii) Bacillus licheniformis (R) Amphotericin B (iii) Streptomyces venezuelae (S) Chloramphenicol (iv) Streptomyces nodosus Options: (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iii) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii)

Matching Antibiotics with Producing Microorganisms

Q.73 Which one of the following represents the abundance of the organisms found in soil? (A) Fungi > Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria (B) Aerobic bacteria > Fungi > Anaerobic bacteria (C) Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria > Fungi (D) Anaerobic bacteria > Aerobic bacteria > Fungi

Abundance of Organisms in Soil

Q.72 Which one of the following use inorganic compounds as an energy source? (A) Heterotrophs (B) Chemolithotrophs (C) Chemoorganotrophs (D) Photoheterotrophs

Which Organisms Use Inorganic Compounds as Energy Source?

Q.71 Which one of the following double-stranded sequences will NOT be recognized by a Type IIP restriction endonuclease? (A) 5′--GGTACC--3′ 3′--CCTAGG--5′ (B) 5′--GGATCC--3′ 3′--CCTAGG--5′ (C) 5′--CATATG--3′ 3′--GTATAC--5′ (D) 5′--GATTTC--3′ 3′--CTAAAG--5′

Type IIP Restriction Endonuclease Recognition Sequences

Q.70 The most abundant class of immunoglobulins in serum is __________. (A) IgM (B) IgA (C) IgD (D) IgG

Most Abundant Immunoglobulin in Serum

Q.69 In which of following processes, glutaraldehyde is used as a sterilizing agent? (A) Pasteurization (B) Incineration (C) Cold sterilization (D) Autoclaving

 Glutaraldehyde as Sterilizing Agent in Cold Sterilization

Q.68 Who among the following scientists was the pioneer in development of chemotherapy? (A) Elie Metchnikoff (B) Robert Koch (C) Paul Ehrlich (D) Ronald Ross

Who is the Pioneer in Development of Chemotherapy?

Q.67 Which one of the following organisms has axial filaments? (A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) Pasteurella multocida (C) Treponema pallidum (D) Shigella dysenteriae

Which Organism Has Axial Filaments?

Q.66 Which one of the following bacterial species can cause atypical pneumonia? (A) Chlamydia pneumoniae (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) Klebsiella pneumoniae (D) Haemophilus influenzae

Bacterial Species Causing Atypical Pneumonia

Q.65 The mRNA of a hypothetical plant gene HSDU is 800-nucleotide long and encodes a protein of 160 amino acid residues. The calculated length of HSDU CDS would be ________ nucleotides (in integer).

HSDU Gene CDS Length Calculation

Q.64 In a genetic cross between two pure-line parents differing in the two independently segregating traits, plant height (tall vs dwarf) and flower color (purple vs white), all the F1 plants were tall with purple flowers. In a testcross population involving these F1 individuals, the expected percentage (%) of dwarf plants with purple flower would be _______ (in integer).

 Dihybrid Testcross in Plant Height and Flower Color Genetics

Q.63 Identify the CORRECT combination(s) between the enzymes in Group 1 and the reactions in Group 2 they catalyze. Group 1 Group 2 (P) Cinnamate-4-hydroxylase (i) L-phenylalanine → Cinnamic acid (Q) Glycerate kinase (ii) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate → dihydroxyacetone phosphate (R) PEP carboxylase (iii) Glycolate + O2 → Glyoxylate + H2O2 (S) Nitrate reductase (iv) NO3- + NAD(P)H + H+ → NO2- + NAD(P)+ + H2O Options: S – iv Q – ii P – i R – iii

Enzyme Matching in Plant Metabolism

Q.62 Identify the CORRECT combination(s) of plant natural products and the categories they belong to. (A) Dhurrin − Phenolic compounds (B) Farnesene − Terpenoids (C) Naringenin − Cyanogenic glycosides (D) Vincristine − Alkaloids

Plant Natural Products Categories

Q.61 Which of the following combinations of plant diseases and the types of their causal organisms is/are CORRECT? (A) Late blight of potato − Bacteria (B) Black rot of crucifer − Bacteria (C) Tungro disease of rice − Mycoplasma (D) Root knot of tomato − Nematode

Plant Diseases and Causal Organisms

Q.60 Match the types of ecological energy productivity in Group 1 with their respective definitions in Group 2. Group 1 Group 2 (P) Net primary productivity (i) Total amount of energy produced by autotrophs (Q) Gross primary productivity (ii) Amount of energy stored by autotrophs after respiration (R) Net productivity (iii) Net gain of energy by the consumers after energy loss (S) Secondary productivity (iv) Unused amount of energy after consumption by heterotrophs (A) P–iii, Q–ii, R–iv, S–i (B) P–ii, Q–i, R–iii, S–iv (C) P–ii, Q–i, R–iv, S–iii (D) P–iv, Q–i, R–ii, S–iii

 Ecological Energy Productivity

Q.59 Match the types of ecological interactions in Group 1 with their respective definitions in Group 2. Group 1 Group 2 (P) Protocooperation (i) One species is harmed but the other is neither harmed nor benefitted (Q) Commensalism (ii) A type of mutualism where one species is benefitted more than the other (R) Amensalism (iii) Both the species are benefitted but the interaction between them is not obligatory (S) Helotism (iv) One species is benefitted without harming the other (A) P–iii, Q–iv, R–i, S–ii (B) P–ii, Q–i, R–iii, S–iv (C) P–i, Q–iv, R–iii, S–ii (D) P–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii

Ecological Interactions

Q.58 Match the plant products in Group 1 with the plant species in Group 2 that produce them and the respective plant parts in Group 3 where they accumulate the most. Group 1 Group 2 Group 3 (P) Liquorice (i) Cinchona calisaya (a) Leaf (Q) Quinine (ii) Lawsonia inermis (b) Root (R) Henna (iii) Glycyrrhiza glabra (c) Flower (S) Saffron (iv) Papaver somniferum (d) Bark (v) Crocus sativus (e) Seed (A) P–iii–b, Q–i–d, R–ii–a, S–v–c (B) P–i–b, Q–iii–d, R–ii–a, S–iv–c (C) P–iii–b, Q–i–d, R–ii–e, S–v–c (D) P–iv–b, Q–i–d, R–iii–c, S–ii–a

Medicinal plant products and their sources

Q.57 With reference to Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated plant transformation, match the virulence factors in Group 1 with their protein types in Group 2. Group 1 Group 2 (P) VirG (i) Kinase (Q) VirA (ii) Helicase (R) VirE (iii) Transcriptional activator (S) VirC (iv) Single strand binding protein P–i, Q–ii, R–iv, S–iii P–iii, Q–i, R–ii, S–iv P–i, Q–iv, R–i, S–iii P–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii

Agrobacterium tumefaciens Virulence Factors

Q.56 Match the inhibitors in Group 1 with their respective targets in Group 2. Group 1 Group 2 (P) Oligomycin (i) Cytochrome bc1 complex (Q) Antimycin A (ii) Photosystem II (R) 3-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-1,1-dimethylurea (DCMU) (iii) K+ ionophore (S) Valinomycin (iv) F0 ATP synthase Options: P–i, Q–ii, R–iii, S–iv P–iv, Q–i, R–ii, S–iii P–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii P–iv, Q–ii, R–i, S–iii

Match the inhibitors in Group 1 with their targets in Group 2

Q.55 In wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana, the four types of floral organs (sepal, petal, stamen, carpel) are arranged in concentric whorls from outside to inside. With reference to the ABC model of floral organ patterning, match the homeotic mutants in Group 1 with their respective arrangements of organs in the four whorls given in Group 2.  Group 1 Group 2 (P) A class mutants (i) sepal, sepal, carpel, carpel (Q) B class mutants (ii) sepal, petal, petal, sepal (R) C class mutants (iii) carpel, stamen, stamen, carpel (iv) sepal, sepal, petal, petal Options: P–iv, Q–ii, R–i P–iii, Q–i, R–ii P–ii, Q–i, R–iii P–iii, Q–i, R–iv

ABC model of floral organ identity

Q.54 In Calvin-Benson cycle, to produce 1 molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate by fixing 3 molecules of carbon dioxide, 9 molecules of ATP and ________ molecules (in integer) of NADPH are typically utilized.

Calvin-Benson Cycle

Q.53 Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT with reference to rubber production from plants? (A) Para rubber is produced from Hevea brasiliensis (B) India rubber is produced from Ficus elastica (C) Panama rubber is produced from Manihot glaziovii (D) Ceara rubber is produced from Castilla elastica

Rubber Production from Plants

Q.52 Which of the following selectable marker genes is/are used for herbicide tolerance during genetic transformation of plants? (A) hpt (B) bar (C) nptII (D) pmi

 Selectable Marker Genes

Q.51 Which of the following plant diseases is/are caused by nematode? (A) Cereal cyst of barley (B) Ergot of rye (C) Wart of potato (D) Ear-cockle of wheat

Plant Diseases Caused by Nematodes

Q.50 Which of the following plant natural products is/are cyanogenic glycoside(s)? (A) Linustatin (B) Limonene (C) Luteolin (D) Linamarin

 Cyanogenic Glycosides in Plants

Q.49 Which of the following tissue types is/are established during embryogenesis in wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana? (A) Shoot apical meristem (B) Rosette leaf primordium (C) Procambium (D) Lateral root primordium

Tissue Types Established During Embryogenesis

Q.48 The collateral and open type of vascular bundle with endarch xylem strand is usually found in (A) monocot stem (B) dicot stem (C) monocot root (D) dicot root

Collateral Open Vascular Bundle with Endarch Xylem in Dicot Stem

Q.47 Which one of the following plant families does apple (Malus domestica) belong to? (A) Rosaceae (B) Rutaceae (C) Rubiaceae (D) Ranunculaceae

Apple Malus domestica Plant Family

Q.46 The spectrum of a protein obtained using electrospray ionization mass spectrometry (ESI-MS) is shown below. Two peaks, one at m/z = 2960.6 and the other at m/z = 3552.5, are marked. The mass of the protein associated with the m/z = 2960.6 peak is __________ Da. (Round off to two decimal places)

ESI-MS Protein Mass Calculation

Q.45 A 5250 base-pair long plasmid with 10 negative supercoils would have a linking number of ____________, considering 10.5 base pairs per turn for B DNA. (Answer in integer)

Plasmid Linking Number Calculation

Q.44 In Michaelis-Menten’s equation, if [S] = 15 Km , then the ratio 𝑣0/𝑉max is __________. (Round off to three decimal places)

Michaelis-Menten Equation

Q.43 Factor H, a complement regulatory protein in plasma, binds C3b and (A) competes with factor B to displace Bb from convertase. (B) initiates the catabolism of C3b into inactivate products. (C) then binds to C3bBb convertase. (D) acts as a cofactor for factor I.

Factor H Complement Regulation

Q.42 Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the changes upon the addition of puromycin during eukaryotic translation? (A) Puromycin resembles aminoacyl end of the charged tRNA. (B) Puromycin occupies the A site of the translating ribosomes. (C) Puromycin occupies the P site of the translating ribosomes. (D) Puromycin occupies the E site of the translating ribosomes.

 Puromycin in Eukaryotic Translation

Q.41 Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct in the processing of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes? (A)3' → 5' exonuclease activity is involved in the conversion of pre-mRNA to mRNA. (B) 5'– capping and addition of 3'– poly A tail precedes splicing. (C) Splicing of pre-mRNA occurs via transesterification reaction. (D) Alternative splicing can yield different mRNA products from the same pre-mRNA.

Pre-mRNA Processing in Eukaryotes

Q.40 Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) fluorescence spectroscopy? (A) The emission maxima (λmax) is independent of the excitation wavelength. (B) The emission maxima (λmax) depends on the concentration of a quencher. (C) The emission maxima (λmax) varies with solvent polarity. (D) The emission maxima (λmax) varies with temperature.

Fluorescence Spectroscopy Emission Maxima

Q.39 Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct regarding the transport and retention of proteins in different cell organelles? (A) Mannose 6-phosphate residues are involved in targeting proteins to lysosomes. (B) Transport of proteins into the mitochondrial compartment is aided by positively charged amino acid residues at the N-terminus and internal hydrophobic segments. (C) The retention of protein in the ER lumen requires the KDEL sequence motif at the C-terminus. (D) Nuclear proteins are transported in an unfolded conformation and the nuclear localization signal sequence is subsequently cleaved by peptidases in the nucleoplasm.

Protein Transport and Retention in Cell Organelles

Q.38 Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct regarding the electromotive force generated by electron transfer chain? (A) It is used for the synthesis of ATP. (B) It is not used for active transport process. (C) It includes a pH gradient component. (D) It does not include an electrical potential gradient component.

Electromotive Force in Electron Transfer Chain

Q.37 Which one of the following is the correct match between the molecular properties listed in Column I and the corresponding biochemical separation methods in Column II? Column I Column II P. Solubility i. Reverse phase chromatography Q. Ionic charge ii. Ultracentrifugation R. Polarity iii. Salting out S. Molecular size iv. Isoelectric focusing v. Gel electrophoresis (A) P-i; Q-ii; R-v; S-iii (B) P-iii; Q-iv; R-ii; S-i (C) P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii (D) P-v; Q-iv; R-iii; S-ii

Correct Match Between Molecular Properties and Biochemical Separation Methods

Q.36 Metabolic intermediates provide the backbone for the synthesis of amino acids. Match the metabolic intermediates listed in Column I with their corresponding amino acids given in Column II. Column I P. α-Ketoglutarate Q. Ribose 5-phosphate R. 3-Phosphoglycerate S. Phosphoenolpyruvate Column II i. Histidine ii. Glutamate iii. Aspartate iv. Phenylalanine v. Serine Options: (A) P-ii; Q-i; R-v; S-iv (B) P-iii; Q-ii; R-i; S-v (C) P-iv; Q-iii; R-ii; S-v (D) P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-v

 Metabolic Intermediates Amino Acids

Q.35 If a 10 mM solution of a biomolecule in a cuvette of path length 10 mm absorbs 90% of the incident light at 280 nm, the molar extinction coefficient of the biomolecule at this wavelength is _____________ M-1cm-1. (Round off to two decimal places)

Molar Extinction Coefficient Calculation

Q.34 In a lactic acid solution at pH 4.8, the concentrations of lactic acid and lactate are 0.01 M and 0.087 M, respectively. The calculated pKa of lactic acid is ________. (Round off to one decimal place)

Calculate pKa of Lactic Acid at pH 4.8 

Q.33 A newly identified viral protein contains one long α-helix spanning 60 amino acid residues. The number of main chain H-bonds formed in this helix is __________. (Answer in integer)

Number of Main Chain H-Bonds in 60 Amino Acid α-Helix

Q.32 Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the addition of N-nucleotides during the rearrangement of the immunoglobulin heavy chain- encoding gene? (A) Addition of N-nucleotides is template encoded. (B) N-nucleotides are added by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase. (C) The added N-nucleotides are common in V-D and D-J junction. (D) N-nucleotides are added by the DNA polymerase II.

N-Nucleotides in Immunoglobulin Heavy Chain Rearrangement

Q.31 In mammals, hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to different types of blood cells are known as (A) totipotent stem cells. (B) pluripotent stem cells. (C) myeloid progenitor cells. (D) lymphoid progenitor cells.

Hematopoietic Stem Cells in Mammals

Q.30 Which one of the following metabolic intermediates is common to glycolysis, nucleotide synthesis and glycogen synthesis? (A) Citrate (B) Oxaloacetate (C) Glucose 6-phosphate (D) Glycerol 3-phosphate

Metabolic Intermediate Common

Q.29 Mammalian cells cultured at low temperature (25 to 30 C) leads to an increased sterol content in the membrane. Elevated sterols in the membrane results in (A) an enhancement in membrane fluidity. (B) stabilization of membrane proteins. (C) an increase in membrane permeability to water. (D) a decrease in membrane fluidity.

Mammalian Cells Low Temperature Sterol Content Membrane Fluidity

Q.28 Which one of the following pairs of amino acids is NOT incorporated in a polypeptide chain? (A) 4-Hydroxyproline and γ-carboxyglutamate (B) γ-Carboxyglutamate and desmosine (C) Ornithine and citrulline (D) 4-Hydroxyproline and 5-hydroxylysine

Amino Acids Not Incorporated in Polypeptide Chain

Q.27  Given the standard reduction potentials (E⊖) for the half-cell reactions below, the standard Gibbs free energy of the dissolution of silver chloride in water, at 298 K, is _____________ J mol–1 (rounded off to nearest integer). (Given: Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1; J = C × V) AgCl(s) + e- → Ag(s) + Cl-(aq) ; E⊖ = 0.22 V at 298 K        Ag+(aq) + e- → Ag(s) ; E⊖= 0.80 V at 298 K 

Calculate Standard Gibbs Free Energy

Q.26 The ionic product of water at 40 °C is  2.92 ×10-14  M². The pH of water at 40 °C is ___________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Ionic Product of Water at 40°C

Q.25 The molecule(s) with non-zero dipole moment is/are (A) N2 (B) CO2 (C) NO (D) SO2

Molecules with Non-Zero Dipole Moment

Q.24 The paramagnetic species among the following is/are (Given: Atomic numbers of Cr = 24; Fe = 26; Ni = 28) (A) [Fe(CN)6]3– (B) [Ni(OH2)6]2+ (C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [Cr(CN)6]3–

Paramagnetic Species Analysis

Q.23 Upon addition of compound X to an aqueous AgNO₃ solution, a white precipitate appears instantly. Also, X does not exhibit geometrical isomerism. The CORRECT option(s) for X is/are (A) [Cr(OH₂)₄Cl₂]Cl (B) [Cr(OH₂)₅Cl]Cl₂ (C) [Cr(OH₂)₆]Cl₃ (D) [Cr(OH₂)₃Cl₃]

Chromium(III) Complexes AgNO₃ Test

Q.22 Which one among the following structures is the most stable conformer of (Z)-pent-2-ene?

Most Stable Conformer of (Z)-pent-2-ene

Q.21 An enzyme-catalyzed conversion of a substrate at 298 K proceeds by a Michaelis-Menten mechanism. The Lineweaver-Burk plot for the analysis of the experimental data has an intercept along the y-axis of 0.357 mmol–1 dm3 s and a slope of 2.10 s. The CORRECT Michaelis constant for the reaction is ________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). (A) 5.88 mmol dm–3 (B) 5.88 mmol dm–3 s–1 (C) 2.80 mmol dm–3 (D) 2.80 mmol dm–3 s–1

How to Calculate Michaelis Constant Km from Lineweaver-Burk Plot

Q.20 Each of the following alkenes undergoes addition reaction with bromine. Under the same reaction conditions, the CORRECT trend in the reaction rates is (A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) I > III > II (D) III > II > I

Rate of Bromine Addition to Substituted Alkenes

Q.19 The initial rate of a reaction triples when the concentration of a reactant, A, is doubled. The order of the reaction with respect to A is _______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Initial Rate Triples When Concentration Doubled

Q.18 One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly to double its volume. If the expansion work done by the system is 1728.85 J, the temperature of the system is _____ K (rounded off to 2 decimal places). Given: Gas constant, R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1

Ideal Gas Isothermal Reversible Expansion Work

Q.17 The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the shell with n = 2 is ________ (in integer). (Given: n = principal quantum number)

Maximum Number of Electrons in Shell n=2: 2n²

Q.16 The CORRECT option(s) of Y for the following reaction is/are

Detailed solution of 2,4‑dinitrophenylhydrazone formation

Q.15 The molecules A and B are a pair of ____________. (A) enantiomers (B) diastereomers (C) conformational isomers (D) constitutional isomers

Conformational Isomers Explained

Q.14 The CORRECT order of acidity of the following compounds is (A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) I > III > II (D) III > II > I

Acidity Order of Pyrrolium Ions

Q.13 Among the following, the structure representing histidine is

Histidine Structure MCQ Explained

Q.12 Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the variation of the Gibbs free energy (G) of a substance with temperature (T) at constant pressure?

Gibbs Free Energy vs Temperature Graph

Q.11 The CORRECT order of electronegativity is (A) Al > Si > P > S (B) Al > S > Si > P (C) S > Si > Al > P (D) S > P > Si > Al

 Correct Order of Electronegativity

Q.10 In the 4 × 4 array shown below, each cell of the first three rows has either a cross (X) or a number. The number in a cell represents the count of the immediate neighboring cells (left, right, top, bottom, diagonals) NOT having a cross (X). Given that the last row has no crosses (X), the sum of the four numbers to be filled in the last row is (A) 11 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 9

4×4 Array Cross Puzzle Solution

Q.9 A cube is to be cut into 8 pieces of equal size and shape. Here, each cut should be straight and it should not stop till it reaches the other end of the cube. The minimum number of such cuts required is (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 8

Unlock the Cube Cutting Puzzle

Q.8 The pie charts depict the shares of various power generation technologies in the total electricity generation of a country for the years 2007 and 2023. The renewable sources of electricity generation consist of Hydro, Solar and Wind. Assuming that the total electricity generated remains the same from 2007 to 2023, what is the percentage increase in the share of the renewable sources of electricity generation over this period? (A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 77.5% (D) 62.5%

Pie Chart Question on Renewable Electricity Share Explained

Q.7 A person sold two different items at the same price. He made 10% profit in one item, and 10% loss in the other item. In selling these two items, the person made a total of (A) 1% profit (B) 2% profit (C) 1% loss (D) 2% loss

Two Items Same Price 10% Profit 10% Loss

Q.6 Sequence the following sentences in a coherent passage. P: This fortuitous geological event generated a colossal amount of energy and heat that resulted in the rocks rising to an average height of 4 km across the contact zone. Q: Thus, the geophysicists tend to think of the Himalayas as an active geological event rather than as a static geological feature. R: The natural process of the cooling of this massive edifice absorbed large quantities of atmospheric carbon dioxide, altering the earth’s atmosphere and making it better suited for life. S: Many millennia ago, a breakaway chunk of bedrock from the Antarctic Plate collided with the massive Eurasian Plate. (A) QPSR (B) QSPR (C) SPRQ (D) SRPQ

Sequence Sentences Coherent Passage Himalayas

Q.5 In the sequence 6, 9, 14, x, 30, 41, a possible value of 𝑥 is (A) 25 (B) 21 (C) 18 (D) 20

Sequence 6, 9, 14, x, 30, 41

Q.4 For positive non-zero real variables 𝑥 and 𝑦, if                             ln (𝑥 + 𝑦/2 ) = 1/2 [ln (𝑥) + ln (𝑦)] hen, the value of    x/y+y/x is (A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 2 (D) 4

Solve ln((x + y)/2) = 1/2(ln x + ln y)

Q.3 In an engineering college of 10,000 students, 1,500 like neither their core branches nor other branches. The number of students who like their core branches is 1/4th of the number of students who like other branches. The number of students who like both their core and other branches is 500. The number of students who like their core branches is (A) 1,800 (B) 3,500 (C) 1,600 (D) 1,500

Engineering College 10000 Students Core Branches Venn Diagram

Q.2 Two wizards try to create a spell using all the four elements, water, air, fire, and earth. For this, they decide to mix all these elements in all possible orders. They also decide to work independently. After trying all possible combination of elements, they conclude that the spell does not work. How many attempts does each wizard make before coming to this conclusion, independently? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 16 (D) 12

Wizards Four Elements Permutations

Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [walk → jog → sprint] is analogous to [bothered → ________ → daunted]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank? (A) phased (B) phrased (C) fazed (D) fused

Walk Jog Sprint to Bothered Fazed Daunted

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