Category: GATE Biotechnology 2024 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

Category: GATE Biotechnology 2024 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

GATE Biotechnology 2024 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

Q65 The absolute relative error in % in the integral ∫01 x2dx by the trapezoidal rule with step size 0.5 is % (rounded off to two decimal places).

Trapezoidal Rule Error in ∫₀¹ x² dx

Q64 y(x) = x2lnx for x > 0 is a solution of dx2y/dx2 + 4dy/dx = ax. Then the value of a is .

Find Value of a | y = x2 ln x |

Q.63 The value of the limit limx→∞ (x/2) ln (1 + 2024/x) is ______.

Solve lim ⁡ x → ∞ x 2 ln ⁡ ( 1 + 2024 / x )

Q.62 If 𝑣⃗ = (2, 2, 2) is an eigenvector of the matrix ( 1 2 3 ; 1 2 3 ; 1 2 3 ) corresponding to the non-zero eigenvalue λ, then the value of λ is ______.

Finding Eigenvalue λ for Eigenvector (2,2,2) of Matrix [,,]

Q61 Consider scale-up of fungal fermentation from model-type to 20,000 L prototype scale-up tank fermenter. The model-type and prototype have 20.0 L and 500 L impeller, respectively. The scale-up criterion is impeller speed. The impeller speed in the prototype reactor will be rpm (Answer in integer).

Fungal Fermentation Scale-Up

Q60 A fed batch process is running at quasi-steady state with respect to substrate and biomass concentration. Biomass concentration is 50 g L−1, glucose volume is 500 L, with constant μ = 0.2 h−1 and ks are 0.1 g L−1, the substrate concentration in the reactor will be g L−1 (rounded off to one decimal place).

Fed Batch Quasi-Steady State

Q59 A fermenter is filled with medium at 1 L min−1. A leak develops at the bottom of the fermenter when the rate of medium leakages 200 L in t min. The volume of medium in the fermenter after 10 min of leakage is L (Answer in integer).

Fermenter Medium Leakage Rate Calculation

Q.58 E. coli is inoculated in a shake flask containing nutrient rich medium. The initial number of viable cells in the medium is 102. After few hours, the number of viable cells is 106. Assuming cell divides by binary fission, the number of generations that have taken place is _______ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

E. coli Generations Calculation

Q57 The free energy change of ATP hydrolysis at 25°C is −32 kJ mol−1. The free energy change for the formation of α-glycerophosphate from glycerol and ATP is −8.2 kJ mol−1 (at 25°C). Using the above information, the free energy change for hydrolysis of α-glycerophosphate is ________ kJ mol−1 (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Free Energy Change for Hydrolysis of α-Glycerophosphate

Q.56 Ethanol is produced in a 10,000 L stirred bioreactor using an impeller of diameter 1 m. The density and viscosity of fermentation broth are 1000 kg m-3 and 1 cp, respectively. The data relating the Power number and Impeller Reynolds number is given below: Reynolds number 1-5 5-500 >105 Power number 70 10 5 Using the above data, the power required for the stirrer to operate at 300 rpm is ________ kW. (Answer in integer)

Bioreactor Impeller Power at 300 RPM

Q.55 Aspergillus niger is grown in a 10,000 L stirred batch bioreactor under aerated conditions to produce citric acid. At steady state oxygen transfer conditions, the specific oxygen uptake rate of the organism and the volumetric mass transfer coefficient are 1×10-4 g oxygen consumed / g biomass s-1 and 60 min-1, respectively. If the oxygen solubility is 8×10-3 kg m-3 under the operating conditions, based only on oxygen dynamics, the maximum possible cell concentration is ________ kg m-3. (Answer in integer)

Calculating Maximum Cell Concentration

Q.54 Fermentation medium is cooled from 121 °C to 30 °C in a double pipe heat exchanger. If cold water is flowing in the counter-current direction and is heated from 10 °C to 70 °C, then the Log-Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD) is ________ °C (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Fermentation Cooling Heat Exchanger

Q.53 Under complete cell washout condition in a chemostat with sterile feed, which of the following statements is/are correct? (A) Biomass concentration in the reactor is maximum (B) Substrate concentration in the exit stream is less than that in the inlet stream (C) Substrate concentration in the exit stream is equal to that in the inlet stream (D) Substrate concentration in the exit stream is zero

Chemostat Complete Cell Washout in Sterile Feed

Q.52 Which of the following factors can affect the growth of a microbial culture in a batch cultivation process? (A) pH of the medium (B) Osmolarity of the medium (C) Substrate concentration in the medium (D) Substrate feed rate

Factors Affecting Microbial Growth

Q.51 Which of the following conditions induce(s) the expression of β-galactosidase gene in the lac operon? (A) Absence of glucose (B) Absence of lactose (C) Presence of glucose (D) Presence of lactose

Lac Operon β-Galactosidase Expression

Q.50 Which of the following statements regarding the below mentioned mRNA sequence is/are TRUE? 5`-UGAUGAGCCUUAACCGGGAACGAAUUUAAG-3` (A) It contains nine codons in the reading frame (B) It contains ten codons in the reading frame (C) It codes for eight amino acids (D) It codes for nine amino acids

Understanding mRNA Codons and Translation

Q.49 Which of the following is/are synthetic auxin(s) that does/do NOT occur naturally? (A) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (B) Indole-3-acetic acid (C) Indole-3-butyric acid (D) 1-Naphthaleneacetic acid

Synthetic Auxin 2,4-D

Q.48 Under which of the following conditions, a mammalian somatic cell fails to undergo mitosis during cell cycle? (A) Initiation of cell plate formation (B) Incomplete DNA replication (C) Chiasmata formation (D) Irreparable DNA damage

Why Mammalian Somatic Cells Fail Mitosis

Q.47 Which of the following is/are considered as biotic elicitor(s) in plant cell culture? (A) Cellulase (B) Chitin (C) Chitosan (D) Mercuric chloride

Biotic Elicitors in Plant Cell Culture

Q.46 Which of the following features help(s) in distinguishing alleles using restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)? (A) Differences in the number of recognition sites for a given restriction enzyme (B) Differences in the ability of alleles to undergo recombination (C) Differences in the ability of alleles to undergo segregation (D) Differences in the number of tandem repeats

RFLP Allele Distinction

Q.45 Which of the following plant-based secondary metabolites belong(s) to the class of alkaloids? (A) Ajmalicine (C21H24N2O3) (B) Azadirachtin (C35H44O16) (C) Camptothecin (C20H16N2O4) (D) Vinblastine (C46H58N4O9)

Plant Alkaloids

Q.44 Which of the following statements is/are correct about an uncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme? (A) It binds to the substrate binding site of the enzyme only (B) It binds to the enzyme-substrate complex only (C) It reduces the Vmax of the enzyme (D) It binds to both free enzyme and enzyme-substrate complex

Uncompetitive Inhibitor of Enzyme

Q.43 The evolution of wings in bats and insects is an example of ________ evolution. (A) convergent (B) divergent (C) neutral (D) parallel

Wings in Bats and Insects

Q.42 Match the genetic disorder (Column I) with its molecular basis (Column II) Column I                                                                Column II P. Sickle-cell anemia                                          1. Mutation in nucleotide excision repair Q. Xeroderma pigmentosum                           2. Trisomy of chromosome 21 R. Tay-Sachs disease                                         3. Mutation in β-globin gene S. Down Syndrome                                            4. Mutation in hexosaminidase A gene (A) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3 (B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2 (C) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2 (D) P-4; Q-2; R-3; S-1

Genetic Disorders MCQ

Q.41 Match the item in Column I with the corresponding technique in Column II. Column I                                          Column II P. Blue laser                                    1. Electron microscopy Q. Tungsten filament                    2. Fluorescence activated cell sorting R. 15N labelled protein                 3. Electrophoresis S. Polyacrylamide                           4. Nuclear magnetic resonance spectroscopy (A) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4 (B) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3 (C) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2 (D) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

Matching in Biological Techniques

Q.40 Match the chemical (Column I) with its use (Column II). Column I                                                                  Column II P. Diethylpyrocarbonate                                1. Chelation of magnesium ion during DNA purification Q. Cesium chloride                                          2. Prevention of RNA degradation in aqueous environment R. Ethidium bromide                                       3. Separation of DNA by density gradient centrifugation S. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid               4. Staining of RNA in agarose gel (A) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2 (B) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1 (C) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3 (D) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1

Chemicals Matching with Uses

Q.39 Match the item (Column I) with its corresponding use (Column II). Column I                                          Column II P. Glutamine                                 1. Detachment of adherent cells Q. Trypsin                                      2. Selection of transfected mammalian cell lines R. Hypoxanthine                          3. Source of carbon and nitrogen in animal cell culture media S. Neomycin                                  4. A component of medium for selection of hybridoma in monoclonal antibody production (A) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2 (B) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3 (C) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4 (D) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4

Cell Culture Matching

Q.38 Match the enzyme (Column I) with its corresponding function (Column II). Column I                                           Column II P. Primase                                        1. RNA dependent RNA synthesis Q. Reverse transcriptase               2. DNA dependent DNA synthesis R. RNA Replicase                           3. RNA dependent DNA synthesis S. DNA Polymerase III                  4. DNA dependent RNA synthesis (A) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2 (B) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4 (C) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1 (D) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

Primase Reverse Transcriptase Enzyme Matching

Q.37 Match the industrial enzyme (Column I) with its application (Column II). Column I                        Column II P. Lipase                        1. Maltose syrup production Q. Ficin                          2. Oil degradation R. Amylase                   3. Oligosaccharide/monosaccharide production S. Glucosidase             4. Meat tenderization (A) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1 (B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3 (C) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4 (D) P-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3

Industrial Enzymes Matching

Q.36 Match the disease (Column I) with its biological vector (Column II). Column I                                 Column II P. Chagas disease                  1. Tsetse flies Q. Trypanosomiasis             2. Mosquitoes R. Leishmaniasis                  3. Sandflies S. Yellow Fever                      4. Reduviid bugs (A) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2 (B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1 (C) P-1; Q-4; R-3; S-2 (D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4

Chagas Disease Vector Matching

Q.35 The decimal reduction time of a microbe during sterilization at 120 °C with a first-order thermal death rate constant of 1 min−1 will be ______ min (rounded off to 1 decimal place).

Decimal Reduction Time

Q.34 If the rate at which E. coli divides is 0.5 h−1, then its doubling time is ______ h.

E. coli Doubling Time

Q.33 The degree of reduction (reductance) for oxalic acid (C2H2O4) is ______.

Degree of Reduction of Oxalic Acid

Q.32 Let OR be the vector that is perpendicular to the vectors OP = 2i − 3j + k and OQ = −2i + j + k. If the length of the vector OR is α√3, then α is ______. 3 4 5 6

Vector Perpendicular to OP = 2i – 3j + k and OQ = -2i + j + k

Q.31 The six faces of a cube (die) are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, and it is rolled once. An outcome is the observed number on the top face. If the probability of getting an odd number as an outcome is twice that of an even number, then the probability of getting a number less than 3 is ________. (A) 1/9 (B) 2/9 (C) 1/3 (D) 4/9

Mastering Die Probability

Q.30 The solution of the differential equation dy/dx = y + e−x that satisfies y(0) = −1/2 is __________. (A) −1/2 e−x/2 (B) −1/2 ex (C) −1/2 e−x (D) −1/2 ex/2

Solution of the Differential Equation dy/dx = y + e^-x

Q.29   The value of the series 1 + sin x + cos2 x + sin3 x + … at x = π/4 is ______. (A) 1⁄√2 + 1 (B) √2⁄√2 + 1 (C) 1⁄√2 − 1 (D) √2⁄√2 − 1

Value of the Series 1 + sin x + cos 2x + sin 3x + … at x = π/4

Q.28 A value of 𝑘 for which the linear equations (𝑘 − 1)𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 0 and 2𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 = 0 have a non-zero solution is ________. (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Value of k for Non-Zero Solutions

Q.27 All pseudogenes DO NOT code for a ________. (A) protein with original function (B) protein with altered function (C) RNA with coding sequence (D) RNA with regulatory function

Understanding Pseudogenes

Q.26 If a denatured protein of human origin is injected into a rabbit, antibodies generated will recognize the ________ structure of the protein. (A) primary (B) secondary (C) tertiary (D) quaternary

Denatured Protein Antibodies Recognize Primary Structure

Q.25 Krebs (TCA) cycle is ________ pathway. (A) only an anabolic (B) only a catabolic (C) an amphibolic (D) a pyogenic

Krebs Cycle is an Ampholic Pathway

Q.24 An element that is present in a nucleotide but not in a nucleoside is ________. (A) carbon (B) nitrogen (C) oxygen (D) phosphorous

Element in Nucleotide But Not Nucleoside

Q.23 Which one of the following is the basic principle of Sanger’s DNA sequencing method? (A) Chain termination by incorporation of dideoxynucleotides (B) Chain elongation by incorporation of dideoxynucleotides (C) Release of inorganic pyrophosphate (D) Chain cleavage by modification of dideoxynucleotides

Sanger’s DNA Sequencing Method

Q.22 Which one of the following is an insect cell line? (A) HEK 293 (B) Sf9 (C) DH5α (D) CHO

Which One of the Following is an Insect Cell Line?

Q.21 Which one of the following bacteriophages has a genome composed of single stranded circular DNA? (A) ØX174 (B) λ (C) T5 (D) P1

ØX174 Bacteriophage

Q.20 A cultured skin fibroblast cell of a goat ‘P’ was fused with an enucleated ovum of a goat ‘Q’. The resultant activated early embryo was then transplanted into a pseudopregnant (surrogate) female goat ‘R’ of the same strain as ‘Q’. On completion of gestation, a female goat ‘S’ was born. With the exception of mitochondrial DNA, ‘S’ is a clone of ________. (A) Only P (B) Only Q (C) Only R (D) Both P and R

Goat Cloning SCNT

Q.19 During normal embryonic development of the mice paw, elimination of cells from the inter-digital space is due to ________. (A) apoptosis (B) meiosis (C) mutagenesis (D) necrosis

Unlocking Mouse Paw Development

Q.18 2-mercaptoethanol breaks the ________ covalent bond between light and heavy chains of an immunoglobulin molecule. (A) C-N (B) N-O (C) S-C (D) S-S

Immunoglobulin Chains

Q.17 Co-translational translocation of proteins is observed in ________. (A) endoplasmic reticulum (B) Golgi complex (C) mitochondria (D) peroxisomes

Co-Translational Translocation of Proteins

Q.16 Mendel’s ‘law of segregation’ applies to the segregation of ________ during gamete formation. (A) mitochondrial genes (B) alleles of a gene (C) linked genes on the same chromosome (D) unlinked genes on the same chromosome

Understanding Mendel’s Law of Segregation

Q.15 The relationship that involves the exchange of nutrients between two different species for their mutual growth is called ________. (A) antagonism (B) commensalism (C) parasitism (D) syntrophism

Nutrient Exchange for Mutual Growth

Q.14 Which one of the following statements is correct about Reynolds Number (𝑁𝑅𝑒) in a stirred tank bioreactor? (A) 𝑁𝑅𝑒 is independent of the viscosity of the medium (B) In laminar flow, mixing time increases with an increase in 𝑁𝑅𝑒 (C) 𝑁𝑅𝑒 is inversely proportional to the impeller speed (D) In turbulent flow, mixing time is independent of 𝑁𝑅𝑒

Understanding Reynolds Number in Stirred Tank Bioreactors

Q.13 Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of thermodynamics? (A) In a closed system, neither mass nor energy is transferred across the system boundary (B) In a closed system, both mass and energy can be transferred across the system boundary (C) The total energy of the system is the sum of kinetic and potential energies (D) In a closed system, only energy can be transferred across the system boundary and not mass

Closed System Thermodynamics

Q.12 The transfer function of a process is G(s) = Kp / (τps + 1), where Kp is the gain and τp is the time constant. This is a ________ process. (A) first order (B) multi-capacity (C) purely capacitive (D) second order

Understanding First-Order Transfer Functions in Process Control

Q.11 In adsorption chromatography, the adsorption of uncharged solute molecules onto a silica-based stationary phase is by ________. (A) covalent bonds (B) electrostatic interactions (C) ionic bonds (D) van der Waals forces

Adsorption Chromatography

Q.10 The least number of squares to be added in the figure to make AB a line of symmetry is (A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7

Least Number of Squares to Make AB a Line of Symmetry

Q.9 A rectangular paper of 20 cm × 8 cm is folded 3 times. Each fold is made along the line of symmetry, which is perpendicular to its long edge. The perimeter of the final folded sheet (in cm) is (A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 20 (D) 21

Unlocking the Perimeter

Q.8 The pie chart presents the percentage contribution of different macronutrients to a typical 2,000 kcal diet of a person. The typical energy density (kcal/g) of these macronutrients is given in the table. Macronutrient                                    Energy density (kcal/g) Carbohydrates                                    4 Proteins                                                4 Unsaturated fat                                   9 Saturated fat                                        9 Trans fat                                               9 The total fat (all three types), in grams, this person consumes is (A) 44.4 (B) 77.8 (C) 100 (D) 3,600

Total Fat Grams in a 2000 kcal Diet

Q.7 A rectangular paper sheet of dimensions 54 cm × 4 cm is taken. The two longer edges of the sheet are joined together to create a cylindrical tube. A cube whose surface area is equal to the area of the sheet is also taken. Then, the ratio of the volume of the cylindrical tube to the volume of the cube is (A) 1/π (B) 2/π (C) 3/π (D) 4/π

Cylinder Cube Volume Ratio

Q.6 In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)−(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks. Steve was advised to keep his head (i) before heading (ii) to bat; for, while he had a head (iii) batting, he could only do so with a cool heads (iv) his shoulders. (A) (i) down (ii) down (iii) on (iv) for (B) (i) on (ii) down (iii) for (iv) on (C) (i) down (ii) out (iii) for (iv) on (D) (i) on (ii) out (iii) on (iv) for

Steve Batting Idiom Quiz

Q.5 For positive non-zero real variables p and q, if log (p2 + q2) = log p + log q + 2 log 3, then the value of (p4 + q4) / (p2q2) is (A) 79 (B) 81 (C) 9 (D) 83

Solve the Logarithm Equation: (p⁴ + q⁴)/(p²q²)

Q.4 The number of coins of ₹1, ₹5, and ₹10 denominations that a person has are in the ratio 5:3:13. Of the total amount, the percentage of money in ₹5 coins is (A) 21% (B) 14 2/7% (C) 10% (D) 30%

Coins Ratio Percentage

Q.3 Consider the following sample of numbers: 9, 18, 11, 14, 15, 17, 10, 69, 11, 13 The median of the sample is (A) 13.5 (B) 14 (C) 11 (D) 18.7

How to Find the Median of a Data Set

Q.2 If two distinct non-zero real variables 𝑥 and 𝑦 are such that (𝑥 + 𝑦) is proportional to (𝑥 − 𝑦) then the value of 𝑥/𝑦 (A) depends on 𝑥𝑦 (B) depends only on 𝑥 and not on 𝑦 (C) depends only on 𝑦 and not on 𝑥 (D) is a constant

If (x + y) Is Proportional to (x − y), Is x/y Constant?

Q.1 If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [dry → arid → parched] is analogous to [diet → fast → ________ ]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank? (A) starve (B) reject (C) feast (D) deny

Unraveling the Analogy

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