Q.105 Among the following molecular process-biological effect pairs, identify the mismatched pair. (A) Histone deacetylation – activation of gene expression (B) Protein phosphorylation – signal transduction (C) DNA methylation – sex-specific control of gene expression (D)Proteolytic cleavage – activation of signaling by peptide hormones

 Histone Deacetylation Gene Expression Mismatched

Q.104 Like any other trait, animal behavior also evolves by natural selection. Which one of the following examples is NOT true with regard to the evolution of behavior by natural selection? (A) The behavioral trait is determined only by genes (B) The behavioral trait varies within the population of that species (C) The reproductive success partly dependent upon the behavioral trait (D) The behavioral trait is influenced by the genotype

Animal Behavior Evolution Natural Selection

Q.103 The relative number of individuals in each age group is an important demographic factor for the study of future growth trends, and this is normally depicted in the form of an age-structure pyramid. Based on your understanding on population dynamics, match the following distribution properties of age structure (Group 1) with the individual forecast given (Group 2): Group 1 I). Uniform age distribution in the pyramid II). Distribution skewed towards younger age groups III). Distribution skewed towards older age groups IV). Reduction in the number of males in the middle age group Group 2 i). Emigration in the recent past and the possible increase in the older age groups in the near future. ii). Likely to be a stable population iii). Possible unemployment in the near future iv). Increased government expenditure on medical needs and social security related issues in the near future (A) I – iii; II – ii; III– i; IV – iv (B) I – ii; II – iii; III – iv; IV – i (C) I – ii; II – i; III – iii; IV – iv (D) I – i; II – iii; III – ii; IV – iv

Age Structure Pyramid Population Dynamics Matching

Q.102 Retroviruses, like the influenza virus, escape the detection of pre-existing antibodies in the host by generating surface antigen variants. They do so: (A) By editing the surface antigen post-translationally (B) Because RNA polymerase of these viruses display high mutation rate during RNA synthesis (C) Because the surface antigens are attacked by the proteases present in the host cell (D) Because DNA polymerase of the host mutates the viral genome in the infected cell

Retroviruses Influenza Surface Antigen Variants Mutation

Q.101 In Drosophila, mutations in homeotic genes result in which one of the following developmental defects? (A) The anterior portion of the embryo will not develop (B) Several segments in the anterior region of the embryo will be lost (C) Segmentation will be lost, and the embryo will have only one segment (D) Segment-specific identities will be lost

Drosophila Homeotic Gene Mutations Segment Identity

Q.100 In vertebrates, the variations in the structure and function of nephrons are directly linked to the osmoregulatory requirements of the organisms depending on the habitats they live in. From the options given below, identify the correct combination that truly represents the adaptation seen in desert mammals: i. Long loops of Henle ii. Short loop of Henle iii. Hyperosmotic urine iv. Large volume of urine v. Removal of nitrogen as uric acid (A) Options i and iii (B) Options ii and iii (C) Options i and iv (D) Options i and v

Desert Mammals Nephron Adaptations

Q.99 In a new species of moth, the genes for body colour (black, B, is dominant over grey, b), wing size (normal wing, W, is dominant over vestigial, w) and eye colour (red, R, is dominant over white, r) are linked. In this species, only one cross-over event has been observed between any two homologous chromosomes during meiosis. In a cross between BB; ww and bb; WW, 5 % of the progeny were black with normal wings. In a separate cross between RR; WW and rr; ww, 15 % of the progeny were red-eyed with vestigial wings. In a third cross between BB; rr and bb; RR, 10 % of the progeny were black-coloured with red eyes. Which among the following is the correct order of these three genetic loci? (A) Body colour – Eye colour – Wing size (B) Eye colour – wing size – Body colour (C) Wing size – Body colour – Eye colour (D) Eye colour – Body colour – Wing size

Moth Genetic Loci Order

Q.98 A newly discovered, recessively-inherited disease-susceptibility trait (DS) is observed only in cotton plants with white flowers, although the flower colour (R) and DS are independently inherited. In a breeding programme, one variety that is homozygous for the absence of DS, but heterozygous for R was mated to another having white flowers but heterozygous for DS. What is the probability that a given plant among the cross progeny will be susceptible to the disease? (A) 25 % (B) 12.5 % (C) 75 % (D) 0 %

 Recessive Disease Susceptibility

Q.97 Among the following options, choose the one that is probably a cause of rapid diversification of animal groups during the Cambrian explosion. (A) Adaptation of organisms to live in the salty environment of ocean (B) Emergence of coelom (C) The movement of animals to land (D) The accumulation of sufficient atmospheric oxygen to support the metabolism of actively moving animals

Cambrian Explosion Cause Rapid Diversification

Q.96 Which of the following most accurately states the goal of systematics? (A) Classification scheme should reflect phylogenetic relationship (B) All animals should be classified based on the relatedness at the early embryonic stage (C) All animals should be grouped based on DNA sequence data (D) Classification of animals should be based on morphological characters

Goal of Systematics

Q.95 Among the following cell structure-function pairs, identify the correctly paired one (A) Microvilli – engulfment of foreign bodies (B)Cytoskeleton – cell migration (C) Peroxisomes – cellular respiration (D) Nucleolus – mRNA transcription

Cell Structure Function Pairs

Q.94 Which one of the following options provide example for the term “habituation” in behavioral ecology? (A) A fish transferred to a fish tank startles initially for a hand clap, but not later (B) Migratory birds from the temperate zone migrating towards the tropical part during the winters (C) Adult kingfisher birds are more successful in catching fishes than their younger siblings (D) Female lizard getting used to a new male lizard during the courtship period

Habituation Behavioral Ecology

Q.93 The term “ecological succession” refers to: (A) A process wherein newer species populate a region that was devoid of flora and fauna (B) A transition phase wherein one particular set of species is replaced by another set of species (C) Changes in the community due to a disturbance in the habitat (D) All the above

Ecological Succession Definition

Q.92 The formation of antigen-antibody complex helps in disposing antigen through the following pathways EXCEPT: (A) Neutralizing the antigen by blocking its activity (B) By directly hydrolyzing the antigen (C) By promoting the precipitation of antigen (D) By activating cell lysis pathway

Antigen Antibody Complex

Q.91 Which one of the following defects do you expect to see if you were able to specifically block apoptosis in the developing limb bud of a frog embryo? (A) The digits will remain connected through a web-like extension (B) The bones will not form, and the limb would look like a paddle (C) The limb would look normal but would be larger in size (D) The anterior-posterior polarity of the limb will be lost

Blocking Apoptosis in Frog Limb Bud

Q.90 Testicular feminization syndrome is a genetic condition wherein an individual with a XY genotype will have an external female-like phenotype. This is caused by (A) Functional loss of androgen receptor (B) Increased production of estrogen and its receptor (C) Functional loss of Mullerian inhibiting hormone (D) Functional loss of androgen receptor and Mullerian inhibiting hormone

 Testicular Feminization Syndrome

Q.89 Control mechanisms operate at any of the several steps involved in gene expression. Which one of the following is the key mode of regulation during the cell cycle? (A) Transcription (B) mRNA processing (C) Activation of protein function resulting from protein-protein interaction (D) mRNA export

Cell Cycle Regulation Protein-Protein Interaction

Q.88 The primary difference between glycogen and cellulose is in the (A)types of constituent monosaccharides (B)number of monomers per molecule (C)configuration of the monomers (D)susceptibility to acid hydrolysis

Glycogen Cellulose Primary Difference Configuration

Q.87 Which one of the following is an example of sympatric speciation? (A) Origin of new species among wasps that pollinate figs (B) Emergence of a new species among finches that migrated to an island and thus isolated from their ancestors (C) Evolution of birds’ and bats’ wings (D) Speciation of squirrels separated by a wide river

 Sympatric Speciation Fig Wasps Pollination

Q.86 Which one of the following provides the strongest support for the theory of “descent with modification”? (A) Early embryonic forms of diverse organisms (examples: fishes, birds and mammals) appear similar (B) Ability of fishes and whales to swim (C) Variation in flower colour in a given species (D) Skin colour variation among individuals in a human population

Descent with Modification Evidence

Q.85 A bacterial population increases from 103 cells to 109 cells in 10 h. Calculate the number of generations per hour. (A) 20 (B) 10 (C) 4 (D) 2

Bacterial Growth Generations Per Hour Calculation

Q.84 How many electrons are accepted when sulfate acts as the terminal electron acceptor in bacteria such as Desulfovibrio? (A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 2

Sulfate Terminal Electron Acceptor

Q.83 In a phenol coefficient test for determining the efficacy of a disinfectant X, the maximum effective dilution for X and phenol was found to be 1/450 and 1/90, respectively. Calculate the phenol coefficient for X. (A) 10.0 (B) 5.0 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.2

Phenol Coefficient Test Calculation

Q.82 Match the microscopes in Group I with their working principles in Group II Group I Group II P. Phase contrast Q. Dark field R. Bright field S. Electron microscopy I. Light reaches the specimen only from the sides II. Uses fluorescent dyes III. Difference in the refractive index of cells from their surrounding medium IV. Difference in contrast between specimen and its surrounding medium V. Uses electrons instead of photons as energy source (A) P-V, Q-II, R-III, S-V (B) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-V (C) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I (D) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-V

Match Microscopes Group I Group II Working Principles

Q.81 Match the infectious agents in Group I with the associated diseases in Group II Group I Group II P. Bordetella pertussis Q. Mycobacterium leprae R. Haemophilus influenzae S. Rubella I. Mumps II. Meningitis III. Tuberculosis IV. Whooping cough V. Hansen’s disease (A) P-IV, Q-V, R-II, S-I (B) P-V, Q-III, R-I, S-IV (C) P-I, Q-III, R-V, S-IV (D) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I

Bordetella Pertussis Whooping Cough Mycobacterium Leprae

Q.80 Match the scientists in Group I with their contributions in microbiology in Group II Group I Group II P. Robert Hooke Q. Paul Ehrlich R. Antony van Leeuwenhoek S. Sergei Winogradsky I. Proved that microbes can cause diseases II. First to observe cells III. First to observe bacteria IV. Used the first synthetic chemotherapeutic agent V. Linked specific bacteria to biogeochemical transformations (A) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-V (B) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-V (C) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV (D) P-V, Q-III, R-IV, S-II

Match Scientists Contributions Microbiology

Q.79 When the supply of tryptophan is plentiful, the tryptophan operon is repressed because the (A) repressor protein-corepressor complex is bound at the operator (B) repressor protein is synthesized in large quantity (C) repressor-corepressor complex is not formed (D) repressor becomes inactive and therefore has reduced specificity for the operator

Tryptophan Operon Operator

Q.78 In a population containing fast and slow growing bacteria, the slow growing bacteria can be enriched by supplementing the medium with (A) chloramphenicol (B) penicillin (C) penicillin & chloramphenicol (D) rifampin

Penicillin Enriches Slow Growing Bacteria

Q.77 Which one of the following is TRUE about siderophores in bacteria? (A) Siderophores are secreted only when soluble iron is available in the medium (B) Siderophores form complex with ferrous ions in the medium (C) Siderophores are the only route of iron uptake (D) Siderophores form complex with ferric ions in the medium

Siderophores Bacteria Ferric Ions Complex

Q.76 In an experiment the structural genes lacZYAof lac operon were found to be constitutively expressed. The following explanations were given for the constitutive expression (P) absence of a functional repressor due to mutation in the repressor gene lacI (Q) mutation in the operator that can no longer bind the repressor (R) mutation in the lacAgene Which of the following is CORRECT (A) Only P (B) Only Q (C) Both P & Q (D) Only R

Lac Operon Constitutive Expression

Q.75 Chemostat is a continuous culture system in which sterile medium is fed into the culture vessel at the same rate as the spent medium is removed. If in a chemostat culture, the flow rate is 30 ml h−1 and volume of the medium inside the vessel is 100 ml, the dilution rate in h−1 is (A) 3.33 (B) 1.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.30

Chemostat Dilution Rate Calculation

Q.74 The enzyme that catalyzes the reduction of nitrogen to ammonia is (A) Nitrogenase (B) Nitrate reductase (C) Nitrite reductase (D) Deaminase

Enzyme Reduces Nitrogen to Ammonia

Q.73 If the radius of a spherical coccus is 0.8 μm, the value of surface area volume in μm−1 will be (A) 7.45 (B) 4.05 (C) 3.75 (D) 0.85

Surface Area to Volume Ratio

Q.72 Which one of the following DO NOT use water as an electron source during photosynthesis? (A) Sulfate reducing bacteria (B) Methanogenic bacteria (C) Green and purple bacteria (D) Nitrifying bacteria

Photosynthesis Electron Source Water

Q.71 The theoretical maximum number of ATP molecules produced from aerobic oxidation of glucose by eukaryotic cells is (A) 38 (B) 24 (C)12 (D) 8

Maximum ATP Aerobic Glucose Oxidation Eukaryotes

Q.70 The most common indicator organism of faecal pollution in water is (A) Clostridium botulinum (B) Bacillus subtilis (C) Escherichia coli (D) Clostridium tetani

 Faecal Pollution Water Indicator Organism

Q.69 Which one of the following transport mechanism is NOT employed by prokaryotes? (A) Passive diffusion (B) Group translocation (C) Endocytosis (D) Active transport

Prokaryotes Transport Mechanisms

Q.68 Shine Dalgarno’s sequence present in mRNA binds to (A) 3′ end of rRNA (B) 5′ end of rRNA (C) 5′ end of tRNA (D) 3′ end of tRNA

 Shine Dalgarno Sequence

Q.67 To which one of the following groups, the antibiotics kanamycin, streptomycin and gentamicin belong (A) cephalosporins (B) macrolides (C) aminoglycosides (D) quinolones

Kanamycin Streptomycin Gentamicin Aminoglycosides

Q.66 In 1976, Tonegawa’s experiment gave clue about gene rearrangement during differentiation of B- cells. The two different types of cells used in this experiment were (A) HeLa cells and fibrosarcoma cells (B) embryonic cells and fibroblasts (C) adult myeloma cells and HeLa cells (D) embryonic cells and adult myeloma cells

Tonegawa Experiment Gene Rearrangement

Q.65 Identify two CORRECT statements from the following which are related to the ion transportation in the root system of plant P. The proton pumps and H+-pyrophosphatase appear to work in anti-parallel with the vacuolar ATPase to create a proton gradient across the tonoplast Q. Calcium is one of the important ion whose concentration is strongly regulated by the concentration of apoplastic spaces in the millimolar level R. Solute move through both apoplast and symplast, and xylem parenchyma cells participate in xylem loading S. The limitation of Nerst equation for relating the membrane potential to the distribution of ion at equilibrium is that it cannot distinguish between active and passive transport (A) P,S (B) Q,R (C) R,S (D) Q,S

Plant Root Ion Transport

Q.64 Identify the correct matching by taking one item from each column. Column-I Column-II P. Coenzyme 1. Holoenzyme + Apoenzyme Q. Holoenzyme 2. Non-protein part in an active enzyme R. Prosthetic group 3. Only the protein part in an active enzyme S. Apoenzyme 4. Cofactor in an enzymatic reaction 5. Apoenzyme + Prosthetic group 6. Holoenzyme + inorganic phosphate (A) P-4 Q-5 R-2 S-3 (B) P-4 Q-3 R-1 S-2 (C) P-4 Q-3 R-5 S-6 (D) P-4 Q-1 R-3 S-5

Enzyme Components Matching

Q.63 Identify two CORRECT characteristic features of (P) Autogamy and (Q) Allogamy from the following statements 1. Plant species usually does not depend on external agents 2. Plant species usually depends on external agents 3. Plant species normally produces progeny that are healthier and better adapted in nature 4. Plant species normally produces weaker progeny in several generations (A)P-1,3      Q-2,4 (B)P-2,4      Q-1,3 (C)P-1,4      Q-2,3 (D)P-2,3      Q-1,4

Autogamy Allogamy Characteristic Features

Q.62 Which two of the following are the INCORRECT statements ? P. In monocotyledonous stems with closed vascular bundle, secondary growth takes place without any cambium Q. In dicotyledonous stems hypodermis is collenchymatous R. Mobilization of storage reserves takes place during post-germination of embryo S. Osborne’s classification of seed storage proteins is based upon solubility in n-hexane (A) P,R (B) Q,S (C) Q,R (D) P,S

Monocot Dicot Stem Secondary Growth Seed Proteins

Q.61 Select the CORRECT set comprising only the synthetic analogues of auxin and cytokinin (A) IAA and Kinetin (B) 2, 4-D and Zeatin (C) IAA and Zeatin (D) 2, 4-D and Kinetin

Synthetic Auxin Cytokinin Analogues

Q.60 Which two of the following are the INCORRECT statements? P. All plants fix CO2 by the action of ribulose biphosphate carboxylase. The reaction occurs in the bundle sheath of C4 plants. Q. All plants fix CO2 by the action of ribulose biphosphate carboxylase. The reaction occurs in the mesophyll cells of C4 plants. R. Phosphoenol pyruvate + CO2 → Oxaloacetate + Pi, catalyzed by the enzyme phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase occurs in the mesophyll cells of C4 plants. S. Phosphoenol pyruvate + CO2 → Oxaloacetate + Pi, catalyzed by the enzyme phosphoenol pyruvate dehydrogenase occurs in the mesophyll cells of C4 plants. (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) Q, S (D) P, R

Incorrect Statements in C₄ Photosynthesis

Q.59 Identify the correct matching by taking one item from each column Column – I Column – II Column – III P. Morphine Q. Nicotine R. Atropine S. Vinblastine 1. Cinchona officinalis 2. Hyoscyamus niger 3. Papaver somniferum 4. Nicotiana tabacum 5. Coffea arabica 6. Catharanthus roseus i. Antineoplastic ii. Respiratory paralysis iii. Antibacterial iv. Narcotic analgesic v. Anticholinergic vi. Antifungal (A) P-1-i Q-2-ii R-3-iii S-4-iv (B) P-2-iii Q-3-i R-1-iv S-5-v (C) P-3-iv Q-4-ii R-2-v S-6-i (D) P-4-iii Q-1-v R-5-i S-2-vi

Correct Matching of Plant Alkaloids, Their Sources and Uses

Q.58 Which two of the following are the CORRECT statements ? P. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is not essential to produce diploid organisms Q. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce aneuploid organisms R. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce hexaploid organisms S. Nondisjunction in the parental meiosis is essential to produce tetraploid organisms (A) P,Q (B) Q,R (C) R,S (D) P,S

Nondisjunction in Meiosis

Q.57 A plant of genotype GGHH is crossed with another plant of the genotype gghh. If the F1 is test crossed, what percentage (%) of the test cross progeny will have the genotype gghh when the two genes are – (P) unlinked, (Q) completely linked with no crossing over, (R) 10 m.u. (genetic map unit) apart, (S) 24 m.u. apart? (A) P – 25 Q – 25 R – 25 S – 25 (B) P – 25 Q – 50 R – 45 S – 38 (C) P – 50 Q – 50 R – 90 S – 76 (D) P – 25 Q – 50 R – 10 S – 24

Genetic Linkage and Test Cross

Q.56 Identify the floral formula with the family and the corresponding plant species General Floral Formula Family Plant P. ⊕ ⚥ P0 or 2-3, A3 or 3+3, G1 or (3) 1. Liliaceae 2. Cannaceae 3. Graminae (Poaceae) 4. Palmae (Arecaceae) 5. Musaceae 6. Marantaceae i. Cocos nucifera ii. Musa paradisiaca iii. Maranta bicolor iv. Canna indica v. Allium cepa vi. Oryza sativa Q. ⊕ ⚥ P3+3, A3+3 or 3 / ⊕ ♀ P3+3, G(3) R. ⊕ ⚥ P3+3, A3+3, G(3) S. ↓ ⚥ P3+3, A6 or 5, G(3) (A) P-1-iv Q-2-iii R-6-i S-4-ii (B) P-2-v Q-4-vi R-3-iii S-5-iv (C) P-3-v Q-6-iii R-5-i S-2-ii (D) P-3-vi Q-4-i R-1-v S-5-ii

Identify the Floral Formula with Family and Plant Species

Q.55 In naturally occurring cytoplasmic male sterility, the molecular determinant is located in (A) Chloroplast (B) Endoplasmic reticulum (C) Golgi complex (D) Mitochondria

Cytoplasmic Male Sterility Location

Q.54 For successful transfer of a foreign gene from the engineered Ti-plasmid to the plant genome, few cis-acting DNA elements and trans-acting protein factors are very much essential. Select the CORRECT combination from the following (A) Opine catabolism genes, Left border sequence, Right border sequence (B) Opine catabolism genes, Left border sequence, Virulence genes (C) Hormone biosynthetic genes, Right border sequence, Virulence genes (D) Left border sequence, Right border sequence, Virulence genes Q.10 In naturally occurring cytoplasmic male sterility, the molecular determinant is located in (A) Chloroplast (B) Endoplasmic reticulum (C) Golgi complex (D) Mitochondria

Ti Plasmid Gene Transfer

Q.53 The two enzymes commonly used for isolation of protoplasts from plants are (A) Cellulase and Lipase (B) Cellulase and Amylase (C) Pectinase and Cellulase (D) Pectinase and Lipase

Plant Protoplast Isolation

Q.52 Considering environment and ecosystem, identify the INCORRECT statement (A) In detrital food chain, it is very difficult to measure the energy flow although the use of radioactive tracers give some idea about the energy flow (B) The change in species composition, community structure and function over time is ecological succession (C) The slower rise of environmental temperature may be attributed to the increase in pollution in environment which reflects enough solar energy back to other spacer to slow down global warming (D) Photoperiodism has no relation with the environment and ecosystem, rather it is a biological event taking place in every plant

Detrital Chains & Photoperiodism

Q.51 In the symbiotic nitrogen fixation process, Leghemoglobin present in the nodule helps in fixing nitrogen in presence of the enzyme (A) Nitrate synthetase (B) Nitrate synthase (C) Glutathione synthetase (D) Nitrogenase

Leghemoglobin in Symbiotic Nitrogen Fixation

Q.50 Identify the event that exclusively occurs in meiotic cell division (A) Chromatid formation (B) Spindle formation (C) Synapsis (D) Chromosome movement to pole

Meiosis Exclusive Event

Q.49 The aflatoxin found in post-harvested grains is injurious to health due to (A) Aspergillus (B) Alternaria (C) Fusarium (D) Phytopthora

Aflatoxin in Post-Harvest Grains

Q.48 Which one of the following statements having the terms - gene, chromosome and genome is CORRECT? (A) The rice gene contains about 50,000 genomes located on 12 different chromosomes (B) The rice genome contains about 50,000 genes located on 12 different chromosomes (C) The rice chromosome contains about 50,000 genes located on 12 different genomes (D) The rice genome contains about 50,000 chromosomes located on 12 different genes

Gene, Chromosome and Genome

Q.47 During cellular respiratory process, pyruvate must be oxidized to acetyl CoA and CO2 before it enters the citric acid cycle. The corresponding simplified equation is: Pyruvate + NAD+ + CoASH  → Acetyl-S-CoA + NADH + CO2 This oxidation reaction occurs in mitochondria and is carried out in presence of the enzyme: (A) Pyruvate kinase (B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (C) Pyruvate decarboxylase (D) Pyruvate carboxylase

Pyruvate Oxidation Before the Citric Acid Cycle

Q.46 Bast fibres are present in (A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Collenchyma (D) Parenchyma

Bast Fibres Location in Plants

Q.45 A patient suffering from pneumonia and tuberculosis was found to have very low CD4+ T cells. In all probability the PRIMARY causative infectious agent belongs to (A) Klebsiella family (B) Mycobacterium family (C) Retrovirus family (D) Streptococcus family

Low CD4+ T Cells

Q.44 An enzyme of 40 kDa is added to a substrate solution in a molar ratio of 1:3. The concentration of the enzyme in the mixture is 12 mg/ml. What would be the corresponding substrate concentration? (A) 0.4 mM (B) 0.12 mM (C) 0.9 mM (D) 0.3 mM

Enzyme 40 kDa 1:3 Ratio

Q.43 You have expressed the following protein that has an isoelectric point of 6.0. The best order of protein purification methodologies to obtain a pure protein is? (A) Gel filtration chromatography, Anion exchange chromatography at pH=4.0, Ammonium sulphate precipitation (B) Cation exchange chromatography at pH=9.0, Ni-affinity chromatography, Gel filtration chromatography (C) Anion exchange chromatography at pH=8.0, Ni-affinity chromatography, Gel filtration chromatography (D) Ammonium sulphate precipitation, Anion exchange chromatography at pH=4.0, Niaffinity chromatography

Best Protein Purification Strategy

Q.42 Which of the four restriction enzymes given below cut the following DNA sequence? 5’-CCGATATCTCGAGGGC-3’ (P) BamH1 (3’-CCTAG^G-5’) (Q) XhoI (3’-GAGCT^C-5’) (R) EcoRI (3’-CTTAA^G-5’) (S) EcoRV (3’-CTA^TAG-5’) (A) P & Q (B) P, R & S (C) Q & S (D) P & R

Restriction Enzymes Cutting CCGATATCTCGAGGGC

Q.41 A researcher wants to clone 3 DNA fragments of sizes 1.1 Mb, 0.097 Mb and 0.045 Mb. The choice of the vectors for cloning each of the fragments are: (A) Cosmid, bacteriophage λ, bacteriophage P1 (B) Yeast artificial chromosome, bacteriophage P1, cosmid (C) Bacterial artificial chromosome, bacteriophage λ, yeast artificial chromosome (D) Only plasmids

Choosing the Correct Cloning Vectors

Q.40 Match the following enzymes with their regulatory mechanism (a) Phosphofructokinase                       1. Product inhibition (b) Glycogen synthase                           2. Control of enzyme synthesis (c) β-galactosidase                                 3. Allosteric interaction (d) Lactate dehydrogenase                  4. Covalent modification (A) (a)-3, (b)-2, (c)-1, (d)-4 (B) (a)-3, (b)-4, (c)-2, (d)-1 (C) (a)-4, (b)-3, (c)-1, (d)-4 (D) (a)-4, (b)-1, (c)-2, (d)-3

Enzyme Regulation Matching

Q.39 Arrange the following in the increasing order of amount of ATP generated by metabolism of one molecule of the following compounds. (i) Anaerobic catabolism of starch with 300 glucose units (ii) Aerobic catabolism of glucose (iii) Aerobic catabolism of acetate (iv) Aerobic catabolism of palmitate (A) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) (B) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) (D) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

ATP Yield Order

Q.38 Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their permeability coefficients across a lipid bilayer membrane. (i) Urea (ii) Glucose (iii) H2O (iv) Na+ (v) Tryptophan (A) (i), (iii), (v), (ii), (iv) (B) (iii), (v), (ii), (iv), (i) (C) (iii), (i), (v), (ii), (iv) (D) (i), (iii), (iv), (v), (ii)

Lipid Bilayer Permeability

Q.37 The following figures show the plot of reaction rate (v) versus substrate concentration (mM) for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction in the presence and absence of an inhibitor. Match the possible reaction types with the plots. (P) Competitive inhibition (Q) Substrate inhibition (R) Michaelis–Menten (S) Non-competitive inhibition (A) P – i, Q – iii, R – ii, S – iv (B) P – iii, Q – ii, R – i, S – iv (C) P – iii, Q – iv, R – i, S – ii (D) P – iv, Q – ii, R – i, S – iii

Matching Enzyme Inhibition Types

Q.36 You have prepared 1.0 liter of 0.5 M acetate buffer (pH = 5.0). The dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.7 × 10−5 M. What would be the acetate ion concentration in the buffer? (A) 0.1 M (B) 0.25 M (C) 0.315 M (D) 0.415 M

Acetate Buffer Calculation

Q.35 In different types of tissue transplantations, the rate of graft rejection in decreasing order is (A) Isograft > Xenograft > Allograft (B) Allograft > Isograft > Xenograft (C) Xenograft > Autograft > Allograft (D) Xenograft > Allograft > Isograft

Graft Rejection Rates Order

Q.34 An oligonucleotide was sequenced by the dideoxy method of Sanger and the following autoradiogram was obtained The sequence of the oligonucleotide is (A) 3’-GTCCTGTACA-5’ (B) 5’-GTCCTGTACA-3’ (C) 5’-ACATGTCCTG-3’ (D) 3’-AATTTCCCGG-5’

DNA Sequencing by Sanger Method

Q.33 An enzyme has two binding sites for an inhibitor molecule. When the inhibitor binds to the first site, the dissociation constant of the inhibitor for the second site increases, leading to negative co-operativity. The Hill coefficient for such an inhibitor is (A) equal to one (B) greater than one (C) less than one (D) less than zero

Hill Coefficient Negative Cooperativity

Q.32 During the biosynthesis of urea in the urea cycle, the two nitrogen atoms are derived from (A) Two free ammonium groups (B) Free ammonium group and aspartate (C) Both nitrogen atoms are derived from arginine (D) One nitrogen atom is derived from citrulline and one from glutamate.

Urea Cycle Nitrogen Sources

Q.31 The terminal electron acceptor during mitochondrial respiration is (A) O2 (B) FAD+ (C) NAD+ (D) ATP

Terminal Electron Acceptor Mitochondria

Q.30 Which one of the following amino acid residues is specifically recognised by chymotrypsin during peptide bond cleavage? (A) Phe (B) Leu (C) Val (D) Asp

hymotrypsin Specificity Amino Acid

Q.29 The order n for a given substrate concentration in an enzyme catalyzed reaction following Michaelis-Menten kinetics, is (A) n = 1 (B) n = 0 (C) n is not defined (D) 0 ≤ n ≤ 1

Michaelis-Menten Enzyme Order

Q.28 The length of an α-helix composed of 36 amino acid residues is (A) 10 Å (B) 54 Å (C) 27 Å (D) 360 Å

-Helix Length for 36 Amino Acids

Q.27 Which one of the following amino acids has a higher propensity for cis peptide bond formation? (A) Histidine (B) Cysteine (C) Glycine (D) Proline

Amino Acid Cis Peptide Bond Formation

Q.26 Which one of the following statements is TRUE when a cell is kept in a hypotonic solution? (A) Water moves out of the cell (B) Size of the cell remains same (C) No movement of water takes place (D) Size of the cell increases

Cell in Hypotonic Solution

The molar conductance at infinite dilution of sodium acetate, sodium sulfate and sulfuric acid solutions are 91.0 × 10−4, 259.8 × 10−4 and 859.3 × 10−4 S m2 mol−1, respectively. Q.25 If the molar conductance of an acetic acid solution is 15.2 × 10−4 S m2 mol−1, then the percentage (%) dissociation of acetic acid in the solution will be (A) 3.89    (B) 2.20 (C) 1.85    (D) 1.48

Percentage Dissociation of Acetic Acid

The molar conductance at infinite dilution of sodium acetate, sodium sulfate and sulfuric acid solutions are 91.0 × 10−4, 259.8 × 10−4 and 859.3 × 10−4 S m2 mol−1, respectively. Q.24 The molar conductance at infinite dilution (in S m2 mol−1) of acetic acid is (A) 1028 × 10−4    (B) 820.4 × 10−4 (C) 690.5 × 10−4    (D) 390.8 × 10−4

Molar Conductance of Acetic Acid

Consider the following SN2 reaction of optically pure 1-chloro-3-ethylcyclopentane (X).H3CH2C–(cyclopentane ring)–Cl  + OH− → YX Q.23 The absolute configuration of 1-chloro-3-ethylcyclopentane (X) shown above is (A) (1S,3R)    (B) (1S,3S) (C) (1R,3R)    (D) (1R,3S)

Absolute Configuration of 1-Chloro-3-Ethylcyclopentane

Consider the following SN2 reaction of optically pure 1-chloro-3-ethylcyclopentane (X).H3CH2C–(cyclopentane ring)–Cl  + OH− → YX Q.22 The structure of Y in the above reaction is (A) H3CH2C–(cyclopentane)–H / OH (B) H3CH2C–(cyclopentane)–OH / H (C) (cyclopentane)–OH with inverted configuration (D) (cyclopentane)–OH with retained configuration

SN2 Reaction of Optically Pure 1-Chloro-3-Ethylcyclopentane

Q.21 The rate of a chemical reaction is tripled when the temperature of the reaction is increased from 298 K to 308 K. The activation energy (in kcal mol−1) up to one decimal place for the reaction is __________. (Given: R = 1.987 cal mol−1 K−1)

Activation Energy Calculation

Q.20 Iodine forms an anionic species Q in aqueous solution of iodide (I−). The number of lone pair(s) of electrons on the central atom of Q is __________.

Iodine Anionic Species Lone Pairs

Q.19 The major product obtained in the following reaction is

Major Product of Reaction

Q.18 Identify the CORRECT product in the following reaction:

Diels–Alder Reaction Product

Q.17 The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca3(PO4)2 is 1.3 × 10−32. In a 0.02 M solution of Ca(NO3)2, the solubility of Ca3(PO4)2 (in units of M) is (A) 6.5 × 10−31    (B) 1.6 × 10−26 (C) 8.0 × 10−16    (D) 4.0 × 10−14

Solubility of Ca3(PO4)2

Q.16 In NaCl crystal, the arrangement and coordination number of the ions are (A) fcc and 6    (B) fcc and 4 (C) hcp and 6    (D) hcp and 4

NaCl Crystal Arrangement Coordination Number

Q.15 When dissolved in water, the number of H+ ions released from a molecule of H3BO3 is __________.

Number of H⁺ Ions Released

Q.14 The number of 2-center–2-electron bonds in anhydrous AlCl3 is __________.

 Number of 2-Center-2-Electron Bonds

Q.13 The given equation       (d(ΔH)/dT)p = ΔCp where H, T and Cp are the enthalpy, temperature and heat capacity at constant pressure, respectively, is called (A) Clausius–Clapeyron equation    (B) Hess’s law (C) Kirchhoff’s equation    (D) Trouton’s rule

Relation Between Enthalpy and Heat Capacity

Q.12 The type of electronic transition responsible for the yellow colour of K2CrO4 is (A) metal to ligand charge transfer (B) ligand to metal charge transfer (C) intra-ligand charge transfer (D) d–d transition

Electronic Transition Responsible

Q.11 N(CH3)3 and N(SiH3)3 are congeners, but around N-atom the former has pyramidal geometry whereas the latter is nearly planar. The bonding responsible for planarity of N(SiH3)3 is (A) pπ–pπ    (B) pπ–dπ    (C) dπ–dπ    (D) δ

Why N(SiH₃)₃ Is Planar While N(CH₃)₃ Is Pyramidal

Q.10 All professors are researchers Some scientists are professors Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments: (A) All scientists are researchers (B) All professors are scientists (C) Some researchers are scientists (D) No conclusion follows

All Professors Are Researchers Some Scientists

Q.9 If |−2X + 9| = 3 then the possible value of |−X| − X2 would be: (A) 30 (B) −30 (C) −42 (D) 42

Possible Value of |−X| − X^2

Q.8 Following table gives data on tourists from different countries visiting India in the year 2011. Country Number of Tourists USA 2000 England 3500 Germany 1200 Italy 1100 Japan 2400 Australia 2300 France 1000 Which two countries contributed to the one third of the total number of tourists who visited India in 2011? (A) USA and Japan (B) USA and Australia (C) England and France (D) Japan and Australia

Which Two Countries Contributed

Q.7 In a factory, two machines M1 and M2 manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a randomly drawn autocomponent from the combined lot is found defective, what is the probability that it was manufactured by M2? (A) 0.35 (B) 0.45 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4

Probability of Defective Component

Q.6 Velocity of an object fired directly in upward direction is given by V = 80 − 32t, where t (time) is in seconds. When will the velocity be between 32 m/sec and 64 m/sec? (A) (1, 3/2) (B) (1/2, 1) (C) (1/2, 3/2) (D) (1, 3)

Velocity–Time Inequality Problem

Q.5 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair: water : pipe :: (A) cart : road (B) electricity : wire (C) sea : beach (D) music : instrument

Water Pipe Analogy

Q.4 All engineering students I should learn II mechanics, mathematics and how to do III computation IV. Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is not appropriate? (A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Engineering Students Underlined Parts Error

Q.3 Mahatma Gandhi was known for his humility as (A) he played an important role in humiliating exit of British from India. (B) he worked for humanitarian causes. (C) he displayed modesty in his interactions. (D) he was a fine human being.

Mahatma Gandhi Humility

Q.2 The Headmaster __________ to speak to you. Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence? (A) is wanting (B) wants (C) want (D) was wanting

Headmaster Wants to Speak to You

Q.1 If 3 ≤ x ≤ 5 and 8 ≤ y ≤ 11 then which of the following options is TRUE? (A) 3/5 ≤ x/y ≤ 8/5 (B) 3/11 ≤ x/y ≤ 5/8 (C) 3/11 ≤ x/y ≤ 8/5 (D) 3/5 ≤ x/y ≤ 8/11

Range of X/Y Using Inequalities

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