Category: GATE Life Science 2017 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

Category: GATE Life Science 2017 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

GATE Life Science 2017 Previous Year Papers with Solutions – Complete Preparation Guide

The GATE Life Science (XL) 2017 question paper is an essential resource for aspirants who want to build strong conceptual clarity and understand the true nature of the GATE examination. Practicing GATE Life Science 2017 previous year papers with detailed solutions helps candidates grasp how fundamental biological concepts are tested through analytical and application-based questions.

At Let’s Talk Academy, GATE Life Science preparation is systematically designed around previous year questions (PYQs) to ensure focused, exam-oriented learning.

Why GATE Life Science 2017 Previous Year Papers Are Important

GATE Life Science is not about memorizing facts; it evaluates a student’s ability to apply concepts logically. The 2017 paper tested:

  • Core Life Science fundamentals
  • Conceptual and analytical reasoning
  • Numerical problem-solving ability
  • Interpretation of biological data

By solving GATE Life Science 2017 PYQs, aspirants can:

  • Understand the actual difficulty level of the exam
  • Identify repeated and high-weightage topics
  • Learn the structure of MCQs, MSQs, and NAT questions
  • Improve speed, accuracy, and exam confidence
  • Develop the correct GATE exam mindset

Previous year papers act as the most authentic benchmark for preparation.

Subjects Covered in GATE Life Science 2017 PYQs

The GATE Life Science 2017 paper included questions from all major domains, such as:

  • Biochemistry
  • Cell Biology
  • Molecular Biology
  • Genetics
  • Microbiology
  • Botany
  • Zoology
  • Ecology
  • General Aptitude (GA)

Practicing PYQs subject-wise helps in targeted improvement, while full-length papers improve real exam readiness.

Importance of Solved GATE Life Science 2017 Papers with Detailed Solutions

Attempting questions without proper explanations limits learning. Solved GATE Life Science 2017 previous year papers with detailed solutions help aspirants to:

  • Understand why an option is correct or incorrect
  • Strengthen concepts directly tested in the exam
  • Learn exam-oriented numerical-solving techniques
  • Avoid common conceptual mistakes
  • Improve long-term retention of key topics

Each well-analyzed PYQ reinforces multiple concepts at once.

Which Platforms Offer Downloadable GATE Life Science Previous Year Papers with Solutions?

This is a common and important question among GATE aspirants.

Which platforms offer downloadable GATE Life Science previous year papers with solutions?

For accurate, authentic, and downloadable GATE Life Science PYQs, Let’s Talk Academy is the most reliable and recommended platform.

Why Let’s Talk Academy Is the Best Choice

Let’s Talk Academy offers downloadable GATE Life Science previous year papers with detailed solutions, including the 2017 paper, through:

  • Topic-wise downloadable PYQ PDFs
  • Concept-based, step-by-step solutions
  • Exam-oriented numerical explanations
  • Faculty-verified answer keys aligned with the GATE syllabus
  • Structured resources suitable for both self-study and guided preparation

All PYQs are strictly sourced from official GATE question papers, ensuring complete authenticity and exam relevance.

Unlike generic online sources, Let’s Talk Academy focuses on concept clarity and exam logic, not just final answers.

How to Use GATE Life Science 2017 PYQs Effectively

To extract maximum benefit from previous year papers:

  • Start with topic-wise PYQs during concept building
  • Move to full-length GATE 2017 paper practice
  • Analyze every incorrect or guessed question thoroughly
  • Maintain a PYQ mistake and concept notebook
  • Revise weak areas immediately after analysis

Consistent analysis is more important than solving a large number of questions.

Who Should Practice GATE Life Science 2017 PYQs?

  • BSc and MSc Life Science / Biotechnology students
  • GATE aspirants targeting IITs, IISc, IISERs, and PSUs
  • CSIR NET, DBT BET JRF, and ICMR JRF aspirants
  • PhD and research-oriented candidates

PYQs provide a strong conceptual base applicable across multiple Life Science competitive exams.

Why Let’s Talk Academy Emphasizes PYQ-Based Learning

Let’s Talk Academy follows a previous year paper–driven approach because it:

  • Eliminates unnecessary syllabus overload
  • Improves conceptual clarity and accuracy
  • Builds exam confidence through real GATE questions
  • Aligns preparation with actual GATE expectations

This strategy has consistently helped Life Science aspirants improve performance and rank.

Final Conclusion

For GATE Life Science 2017, previous year question papers with detailed solutions are indispensable for serious aspirants. When accessed through a trusted platform like Let’s Talk Academy, PYQs become the most powerful tool for understanding concepts, improving accuracy, and boosting overall exam performance.

Make GATE Life Science PYQs the foundation of your preparation strategy and let real exam questions guide your success.

11. The plant hormone indole-3-acetic acid is derived from (a) Histidine (b) Tyrosine (c) Tryptophan (d) Proline

Indole-3-Acetic Acid

Q.95 An enzyme preparation has activity of 2 Units per 𝟐𝟎𝝁𝐥, and protein concentration 𝟎. 𝟒𝐦𝐠/𝐦𝐥. The specific activity (Units/mg) of this enzyme will be ____

Calculating Enzyme Specific Activity

Q.94 In a population which is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive genotype of a certain trait is 0.09 . The percentage of individuals with heterozygous genotype is ____ % 

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

Q.93 MATCH the signaling pathways in Group I with their functions in Group II, during the process of development Group I P. Hedgehog signaling Q. Hox proteins R. Wnt signaling S. Notch signaling Group II (i) Involved in signaling at 4-cell embryo stage in C. elegans through 𝑔𝑙𝑝1 expression (ii) Involves frizzled receptor on target cell membrane and establish polarity in insects (iii) Plays critical role in facial morphogenesis in vertebrates and its mutation causes cyclopia (iv) Required for 𝑇 − 𝑏𝑥 transcription factor expression for vertebrate limb development (A) P-iii; Q-ii; R-iv; S-i (B) P-iii; Q-iv; R-ii; S-i (C) P-iv; Q-iii; R-ii; S-i (D) P-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii

Matching Signaling Pathways in Development

Q.92 If a heavy chain of an antibody molecule weighs 65,000 Daltons (𝐃𝐚) and a light chain weighs 𝟐𝟓, 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝐃𝐚, the approximate calculated weight of an IgM antibody in Da will be (A) 90,000 (B) 180,000 (C) 360,000 (D) 900,000

IgM Antibody Molecular Weight Calculation

Q.91 Match the following molecules in Group I with their function in Group II Group I P. Transferrin Q. Insulin R. 𝛼-macroglobulin S. Fibronectin Group II (i) Uptake of glucose (ii) Binds iron (iii) Substratum for cell attachment (iv) Proteinase inhibitor (v) Binds to oxygen in RBC (A) P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-iii (B) P-ii; Q-i; R-v; S-iii (C) P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-ii (D) P-i; Q-iii; R-ii; S-v

Transferrin Insulin Alpha-Macroglobulin Fibronectin Matching

Q.90 Upon activation of phospholipase C by ligand binding to G-protein coupled receptor, the 𝐂𝐚+𝟐 concentration in cytosol will (A) decrease due to blockage of InsP3 gated channel on endoplasmic reticulum (B) decrease due to blockage of InsP3 gated channel on plasma membrane (C) increase due to efflux of Ca+2 from InsP3 gated channel on mitochondria (D) increase due to efflux of Ca+2 from InsP3 gated channel on endoplasmic reticulum as well as influx of Ca+2 from InsP3 gated channel on plasma membrane

Phospholipase C Activation GPCR

Q.89 A cell in Gl phase has 16 chromosomes. The total number of chromatids that would be found per cell during Metaphase II of meiosis are ____

Understanding Chromatids in Meiosis

Q.88 The population data present in an island is as follows Genotype    Number 𝐴𝐴                 300 𝐴𝑎                 500 𝑎𝑎                 200     Total       1000 The allele frequency of 𝑨 (upto two decimals) will be ____

Calculating Allele Frequency

Q.87 In the Meselson and Stahl experiment, E. coli was grown in a medium containing 15NH4Cl. After 24 hours, the E. coli cells were transferred to a medium containing 14NH4Cl. After the fourth generation in the medium containing 14NH4Cl, the ratio between hybrid (15N / 14N) DNA and light (14N / 14N) labeled DNA will be 1 : n. Find the value of n.

Meselson-Stahl Experiment

Q.87 In the Meselson and Stahl experiment, E. coli was grown in a medium containing 15NH4Cl. After 24 hours, the E. coli cells were transferred to a medium containing 14NH4Cl. After the fourth generation in the medium containing 14NH4Cl, the ratio between hybrid (15N / 14N) DNA and light (14N / 14N) labeled DNA will be 1 : n. Find the value of n.

Number of Linkage Groups

Q.85 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct? (A) During metaphase, the 2 copies of chromosomal DNA are held together at the centromere (B) The short arm of chromosomes is referred to as 𝑝 and the long arm is referred to as 𝑞 (C) The terminal structures at the end of the chromatids are referred to as telomeres (D) The terms heterochromatin and euchromatin refer to the active and repressed regions of the chromosome respectively

Which Statement on Chromosome Structure is NOT Correct?

Q.84 The covalent modification performed by kinases which regulate proteins in signaling pathways is (A) glycosylation (B) methylation (C) ubiquitination (D) phosphorylation

Covalent Modification by Kinases

Q.83 Aromatase inhibitors are often prescribed for post-menopausal women to treat estrogen receptor positive breast cancer patients, because these class of drugs (A) reduce prostaglandin biosynthesis (B) reduce the level of estradiol biosynthesis (C) inhibit conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (D) are non-toxic in post-menopausal women 

Aromatase Inhibitors in Breast Cancer Treatment

Q.82 Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species, which is a parasite having a complex life cycle. The fusion between male and female gametocytes of Plasmodium happens inside (A) human liver (B) human RBCs (C) mosquito midgut (D) mosquito salivary glands

Malaria Parasite Life Cycle

Q.81 A female "Spotted sand piper" courts males repeatedly. This behavior can be explained by the term (A) polyandry (B) polygyny (C) monogamy (D) sexual cannibalism

Spotted Sandpiper Polyandry

Q.80 The metabolic pathway which is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration is (A) the TCA cycle (B) the electron transport chain (C) glycolysis (D) synthesis of acetyl CoA from pyruvate

Metabolic Pathway Common to Fermentation and Cellular Respiration

Q.79 The enzyme amylase can break alpha glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers. Hence, amylase can digest which one of the following carbohydrates? (A) Cellulose (B) Starch (C) Chitin (D) Xylans

Amylase Digests Starch

Q.78 A woman with blood group A gave birth to a baby with blood group AB. The blood group of the father would be (A) only AB (B) only B (C) either AB or B (D) blood group O 

Blood Group Inheritance

Q.77 One of the most remarkable features of evolution is the formation of amnion and allantoin. This appeared for the "first time" in evolutionary time scale in (A) reptiles (B) birds (C) fishes (D) humans

Amnion and Allantois Evolution

Q.76 The characteristic feature of deuterostomes is depicted by (A) coelom formed by the hollowing out of a previously solid cord of mesodermal cells (B) spiral and determinate cleavage (C) formation of mouth from blastopore (D) formation of anus from blastopore 

Deuterostomes characteristic feature

Q.75 The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic X against Clostridium tetani, Staphylococcus sp., Shigella sp., and Streptococcus sp. is 𝟐𝟓, 𝟏𝟓, 𝟐 and 𝟏𝝁 𝐠/𝐦𝐥, respectively. Assuming that the bioavailable concentration of X in an animal model is 𝟐𝟎𝝁 𝐠/𝐦𝐥, which one of these bacteria may develop resistance against X in the animal model? (A) Clostridium tetani (B) Staphylococcus sp. (C) Shigella sp. (D) Streptococcus sp.

Unraveling MIC and Antibiotic Resistance

Q.74 Assume that a bacterial culture has a mean generation time of 2 hours. If the number of bacteria present after 24 hours of culture are 𝟒. 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎𝟕 , the initial number of bacteria present were ____

Bacterial Growth Calculation

Q.73 Assume that the average DNA content of a single microbial cell is 4 femtogram. A soil sample analyzed for its microbial community DNA is found to contain 𝟎. 𝟑𝟐𝝁 𝐠 DNA per gram of the soil. The number of microbial cells per milligram of the soil are ____ 

Calculating Microbial Cells in Soil

Q.72 The transformation efficiency of competent cells prepared in a laboratory is 𝟏𝟎4 𝐂𝐅𝐔/𝝁𝐠 of plasmid DNA. If 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝝁 𝐠 of this plasmid is used to transform these competent cells, the number of transformed bacteria in CFU after plating will be ____

Understanding Transformation Efficiency

Q.71 One-ml sample of a bacterial culture was serially diluted to 𝟏𝟎𝟓 times, and 46 colonies were obtained after plating this diluted sample on an agar medium. The number of cells present per ml in the undiluted original sample were ____

Bacterial Culture Dilution Calculation

Q.70 Match the terms given in Group I with the descriptions from Group II. Group I (P) Photoautotrophs (Q) Chemoautotrophs (R) Photoheterotrophs (S) Chemoheterotrophs Group II (I) Use inorganic chemical reactions for energy production (II) Use organic compounds for energy production (III) Use sunlight as energy source and carbon dioxide as carbon source (IV) Use sunlight as energy source and organic compounds as carbon source (A) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III (B) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II (C) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II (D) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I

Photoautotrophs Chemoautotrophs Matching

Q.69 Match the enzymes given in Group I with the events from Group II. Group I (P) UvrABC endonuclease (Q) Reverse transcriptase (R) AP endonuclease (S) ATP sulfurylase Group II (I) Retrovirus replication (II) Base excision repair (III) Nucleotide excision repair (IV) Pyrosequencing (A) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III (B) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV (C) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II (D) P-II, Q-I, R-III, S-IV

UvrABC Endonuclease to Pyrosequencing

Q.68 Match the diseases given in Group I with their causative agents from Group II. Group I (P) Plague (Q) Rabies (R) Q fever (S) Malaria Group II (I) Coxiella burnetii (II) Plasmodium spp. (III) Yersinia pestis (IV) Lyssavirus (A) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II (B) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV (C) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II (D) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II

Matching Diseases to Causative Agents

Q.67 A bactericidal agent X is added after 3 hours of growth of a bacterial culture. Following the addition of X, the bacterial growth was measured using the standard plate count method till 24 hours. Which one of the following figures is the most accurate representation of the action of X? (A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iv

Understanding Bactericidal Agent Effects

Q.66 An antigen X was injected into a rabbit for the first time at time P. Then the rabbit was given a booster dose of X at time Q. Which one of the following figures accurately depicts the adaptive immune response by the rabbit against X? (A) i (B) ii (C) iii (D) iv

Primary & Secondary Immune Response Graph

Q.65 As an antiseptic, alcohol is effective against (A) bacteria and non-enveloped viruses (B) bacterial endospores and fungi (C) bacteria and fungi (D) fungi and non-enveloped viruses

Alcohol as Antiseptic

Q.64 Which one of the following statements is TRUE about MacConkey (MAC) agar medium? (A) MAC agar medium is a selective and differential medium for Gram-positive bacteria. (B) MAC agar medium is a selective and differential medium for Gram-negative bacteria. (C) MAC agar medium is an enriched medium for Gram-positive bacteria. (D) MAC agar medium is a synthetic medium for Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

MacConkey Agar

Q.63 Which one of the following antibiotics is NOT produced by Streptomyces sp.? (A) Amphotericin B (B) Neomycin (C) Vancomycin (D) Gentamicin

Which Antibiotic Is Not Produced by Streptomyces?

Q.62 The inner mitochondrial membrane comprises of a series of folds known as (A) cristae (B) thylakoids (C) cisterns (D) cilia 

Inner Mitochondrial Membrane Folds

Q.61 Which one of the following is a contagious disease? (A) Chickenpox (B) Tetanus (C) Malaria (D) Filariasis

Which One of the Following is a Contagious Disease?

Q.60 Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to which one of the following kingdoms of classification? (A) Monera (B) Plantae (C) Protista (D) Animalia

Unicellular Eukaryotic Organisms

Q.59 Which one of the following is NOT a contribution by Robert Koch? (A) Identification of causative agent of anthrax. (B) Discovery of causative agent of tuberculosis. (C) Discovery of causative agent of leprosy. (D) Identification of causative agent of cholera

Robert Koch Contributions

Q.58 Microbes that have their optimal growth rate near 𝟏𝟓∘𝐂 but can still grow at 𝟎∘𝐂 to 𝟐𝟎∘𝐂 are known as (A) mesophiles (B) psychrotrophs (C) psychrotolerant (D) psychrophiles

Understanding Microbes by Temperature Preference

Q.57 Which one of the following is the terminal electron acceptor in the given metabolic reaction catalyzed by methanogens? 𝟒𝐇𝟐 + 𝐂𝐎𝟐 ⟶ 𝐂𝐇𝟒 + 𝟐𝐇𝟐𝐎 (A) H2 (B) CO2 (C) CH4 (D) H2O

Terminal Electron Acceptor in Methanogenesis

Q.56 Which one of the following is the end product of dissimilatory sulfate reduction by sulfate reducing bacteria? (A) Hydrogen sulfide (B) Sulfur dioxide (C) Sulfur (D) Thiosulfate

End Product of Dissimilatory Sulfate Reduction

Q.55 Which TWO of the following reactions are INCORRECT in relation to 𝐂𝟐 oxidative photosynthetic carbon cycle in land plants? P. 2 (Ribulose-1,5-biphosphate) +2(CO2) → 2 (phosphoglycolate) +2 (3-phosphoglycerate) +4H+ Q. Serine +𝛼-ketoglutarate → hydroxypyruvate + glutamine R. 2 (Phosphoglycolate) +2(H2O) → 2 (glycolate) +2 Pi S. Hydroxypyruvate +NADH+ H+ → glycerate +NAD+ (A) P and Q (B) 𝑄 and 𝑅 (C) R and S (D) S and P

C2 Oxidative Photosynthetic Carbon Cycle

Q.54 Choose the plant part, its use and the source species in CORRECT combination. Plant Part P. Bark Q. Leaf R. Capsule S. Stigma Use i. Insecticide ii. Food colorant iii. Flavoring agent iv. Analgesic Species 1. Crocus sativus 2. Papaver somniferum 3. Azadirachta indica 4. Cinnamomum zeylanicum (A) P-i-1, Q-ii-2, R-iii-3, S-iv-4 (B) P-iii-4, Q-ii-1, R-iv-2, S-i-3 (C) P-ii-1, Q-i-3, R-iv-2, S-iii-4 (D) P-iii-4, Q-i-3, R-iv-2, S-ii-1

Unlocking Medicinal Plant Secrets

Q.53 Match the pathogen, disease caused and the affected plant in the CORRECT combination. Pathogen P. Blumeria graminis Q. Magnaporthe grisea R. Venturia inaequalis S. Cercospora personata Disease i. Blast disease ii. Powdery mildew iii. Tikka disease iv. Scab disease Plant 1. Groundnut 2. Apple 3. Barley 4. Rice (A) P-i-1, Q-ii-2, R-iii-3, S-iv-4 (B) P-i-2, Q-ii-1, R-iii-4, S-iv-3 (C) P-ii-3, Q-i-4, R-iv-2, S-iii-1 (D) P-ii-3, Q-i-4, R-iii-2, S-iv-1

Pathogen-Disease-Plant Matching

Q.52 Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to plant genetic transformation methods. GROUP I P. Helium Q. Acetosyringone R. Polyethylene glycol S. Agarose embedding GROUP II 1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens 2. Microinjection 3. Particle bombardment 4. Protoplast (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P −2, Q − 1, R −4, S− 3 (C) P −3, Q −4, R −1, S− 2 (D) P− 3, Q − 1, R −4, S− 2

Plant Genetic Transformation Methods

Q.51 Identify the CORRECT matching between group I and group II in relation to ecology GROUP I P. The physical environment of an organism Q. The totality of the needs of a population for survival and its resource utilization R. The position of a species in a food chain S. Basic functional unit comprising living community and its physical environment GROUP II 1. Trophic level 2. Habitat 3. Ecosystem 4. Niche 5. Ecological pyramid (A) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (C) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

Ecology Group I-II Matching

Q.50 In a typical sexually reproducing angiospermic plant, if an endosperm cell contains 4.8 × 108 nucleotide pairs of DNA, then a microsporocyte of this plant will have ____ × 108 nucleotide pairs of DNA.

Endosperm DNA Content and Microsporocyte Calculation in Angiosperms 

Q.49 In a hypothetical trihybrid cross of three loci (viz. A, B, C), all were inherited in a complete dominant manner over their recessive alleles 𝐚, 𝐛, 𝐜, respectively. When a test cross between F 1 and parent 'aabbcc' was performed, following genotypes of eight phenotypically distinct classes were observed with respective numbers Class Genotype Number 1 ABC 412 2 AbC 80 3 ABc 68 4 abc 406 5 aBC 58 6 Abc 8 7 aBc 1 8 abC 7 The genetic distance (up to one decimal) between A and C loci will be ___ cM.

Genetic Distance Calculation in Trihybrid Test Cross

Q.48 Two independent non-segregating recessive mutants ( 𝒎𝟏 and 𝒎𝟐 ) display similar defects in petal formation. When they were crossed with each other ( 𝒎𝟏 × 𝒎𝟐 ), all the F1 plants developed normal petals. In view of this observation, which of the following conclusions is CORRECT? (A) Mutations in both 𝑚𝑙 and 𝑚2 are in the same gene (B) Mutations in both 𝑚𝑙 and 𝑚2 are in two separate genes (C) Inheritance is non-Mendelian (D) None of the above

Complementation Test

Q.47 Two plant cells M and N are lying side by side making direct contact. "M" has osmotic potential (𝚿𝒔) of -10 bar and pressure potential ( 𝚿 p) of 4 bar. On the other hand, " 𝑵 " has osmotic potential (𝚿𝒔) of -12 bar and pressure potential ( 𝚿 p) of 5 bar. Based on these data, what would be the direction of movement of water between M and N? (A) M to N (B) N to M (C) There will be no movement (D) In both directions

Water Potential Explained

Q.46 Choose the CORRECT set of matches between group I and group II in relation to nitrogen fixation and assimilation GROUP I Nitrobacter Nitrite reductase Nitrogenase Nitrate reductase GROUP II NO3 − → NO2 − N2 → 2NH3 NO2 − → NH4 + NO2 − → NO3 − (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Nitrogen Fixation and Assimilation

Q.45 Identify the INCORRECT statement with relation to plant secondary metabolites. (A) Atropine is a member of indole alkaloids (B) Limonene is a cyclic terpene found in citrus plants (C) Green tea is rich in polyphenols (D) Cyanidin contributes to the red color in rose petals

Plant Secondary Metabolites

Q.44 Which of the following is TRUE for 𝑲-strategist species? (A) Produce relatively large number of offspring (B) Population often grow exponentially (C) Provide relatively little or no parental care to offspring (D) Occur in stable and predictable habitats

K-Strategist Species Characteristics

Q.43 The phenomenon where an organism lives at the expense of another organism by harming it but not killing, is called (A) Commensalism (B) Predation (C) Symbiosis (D) Parasitism

Parasitism in Biology

Q.42 Which of the following fungi is an example of obligate biotrophic plant pathogen? (A) Alternaria brassicicola (B) Botrytis cinerea (C) Puccinia triticina (D) Sclerotinia sclerotiorum

Obligate Biotrophic Plant Pathogen

Q.41 Two of the vir operons of Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens are constitutively expressed. Identify the CORRECT pair. (A) vir 𝐴 and vir 𝐺 (B) vir 𝐹 and vir 𝐻 (C) vir 𝐶 and vir 𝐷 (D) vir 𝐵 and vir ?

 Vir Operons Ti Plasmid Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Q.40 Which of the following plant hormones is a carotenoid-cleavage product? (A) Phytosulfokine (B) Brassinosteroid (C) Methyl jasmonate (D) Strigolactone

Which Plant Hormone is a Carotenoid-Cleavage Product?

Q.39 A typical floral meristem differs from shoot apical meristem on the basis of (A) Determinate growth (B) Presence of auxin (C) Presence of stem cells (D) Negative geotropism

Floral Meristem vs Shoot Apical Meristem Differences

Q.38 Among the following, which genetic material is naturally inherited through maternal inheritance in higher plants? (A) Nuclear DNA (B) Plasmid DNA (C) Chloroplast DNA (D) T-DNA

Maternal Inheritance in Higher Plants

Q.37 A cavity, lysigenous in origin and possessing volatile oil is found in the pericarp of one of the following plants. Identify the CORRECT answer. (A) Litchi (B) Citrus (C) Mango (D) Coconut

Lysigenous Cavity Volatile Oil Pericarp

Q.36 As per the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG II, 2003) classification, which of the following plant families comprises of only single genus with single species? (A) Lauraceae (B) Aristolochiaceae (C) Amborellaceae (D) Typhaceae

APG II 2003 Classification

Q.35 A newly isolated circular plasmid gave two bands of 3.2 and 3 kb on digestion with EcoRI and two bands of 5.0 kb and 1.2 kb on digestion with BamHI. Double digestion with EcoRI and BamHI, yielded four bands of 𝟐. 𝟔 𝐤𝐛, 𝟐. 𝟒 𝐤𝐛, 𝟎. 𝟖 𝐤𝐛 and 0.4 kb. Digestion with SalI led to disruption of ampicillin resistance gene cassette. The correct restriction map is

Restriction Map of Circular Plasmid

Q.34 Cardiotonic steroids have ability to strengthen heart muscle contraction due to the fact that these steroids (A) inhibit K +-dependent dephosphorylation of Na+ −K +ATPase (B) activate Na+ − K +ATPase (C) increase uptake of Na+by activation of Na+ − Ca2+ exchanger (D) increase uptake of Ca2+ by activation of Na+ −Ca2+ exchanger

 Cardiotonic Steroids Strengthen Heart Muscle Contraction

Q.33 In an in vitro dehydrogenation reaction of succinate catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase, malonate is added. Which one of the following curves represents the effect of malonate on the catalysis of succinate dehydrogenase?

 Succinate Dehydrogenase Malonate Inhibition

Q.32 Match the molecule in column I with its function in column II Column I (P) Cholera toxin (Q) Pertussis toxin (R) IP3 (S) Caffeine Column II (i) modifies G𝛼i (ii) inhibits c-AMP phosphodiesterase (iii) modifies G𝛼𝑠 (iv) increases intracellular Ca2+ level (A) P-iii ; Q-i; R-iv, S-ii (B) P-iv; Q-i; R-iii, S-ii (C) P-ii ; Q-iv; R-i, S-iii (D) P-iii ; Q-i; R-ii, S-iv

Cholera Toxin, Pertussis Toxin, IP3 and Caffeine

Q.31 Match the following enzymes in column I with their cofactors in column IIColumn I (P) Pyruvate decarboxylase (Q) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase (R) Pyruvate carboxylase (S) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase Column II i. Biocytin ii. NADP+ iii. NAD+ iv. Thiamine pyrophosphate (A) P-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-iii (B) P-iv; Q-iii; R-i; S-ii (C) P-i; Q-ii; R-iii; S-iv (D) P-iii; Q-i; R-iv; S-ii

Enzymes and Cofactors Matching

Q.30 In an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the initial reaction velocity is only one fourth of its maximum velocity. If the substrate concentration is 𝟑. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑𝐦𝐌, the value of 𝑲𝒎 in micro molar ( 𝝁𝐌 ) will be ....

Enzyme Catalyzed Reaction

Q.29 Which one of the following is NOT TRUE for class I MHC protein? (A) MHC class I protein are polymorphic (B) T-cell receptors recognizes MHC class I protein (C) MHC class I protein are displayed on the surfaces of nucleated vertebrate cells (D) 𝛽2 -microglobulin is covalently associated with MHC class I protein

Which is NOT True for Class I MHC Protein?

Q.28 A solution containing GTP has extinction coefficient 1.55 × 103 mol-1 dm-3 cm-1 at a certain wavelength. The concentration of GTP solution is 1.29 × 10-5 mol dm-3. Absorbance of GTP solution in 1 cm cuvette at the same wavelength will be ______.

Beer–Lambert Law Numericals

Q.27 In a PCR reaction, with one double stranded DNA of 600 bp , nano gram of DNA produced after 40 cycles of amplification will be ____

PCR Reaction

Q.26 The duration of DNA synthesis (S phase) in plant cells is 11 h and the DNA is replicated at a rate of 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝐛𝐩/𝐬/ fork. A plant species has about 𝟑. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎 𝐛𝐩 DNA/genome. The number of bidirectional forks per genome required for replication will be ____

Number of Bidirectional Forks Per Genome

Q.25 Which one of the following features is NOT appropriate for Fab fragment of IgG ? (A) Contains antigen binding site (B) Contains an intact L chain (C) Two fragments are formed from one IgG molecule (D) Mediates complement fixation in the intact IgG molecule

Fab Fragment of IgG

Q.24 Which one of the following will NOT form lipid bilayer? (A) Cholesterol (B) Phosphatidyl ethanolamine (C) Triacylglycerol (D) Phosphatidyl serine

Which One Will NOT Form Lipid Bilayer?

Q.23 Administration of primaquine causes severe hemolytic anemia because it (A) increases the demand for NADPH to a level that cells can't meet (B) decreases the demand for NADPH (C) inactivates glutathione peroxidase of erythrocytes (D) increases reduced glutathione level of erythrocytes

 Primaquine Hemolytic Anemia

Q.22 Which one is TRUE for Calvin cycle? (A) Glycerol 3-phosphate is generated in this cycle (B) CO2 is not consumed in this cycle (C) This is a reductive pentose phosphate cycle (D) Ribose 5-phosphate is a carboxylation substrate in this cycle

Calvin Cycle True Facts

Q.21 Which one of the enzymes is responsible for arsenic toxicity? (A) Pyruvate kinase (B) Aldolase (C) Phosphofructokinase (D) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Enzyme Responsible for Arsenic Toxicity

Q.20 Puromycin is a structural analog of (A) alanyl-tRNA (B) tyrosyl-tRNA (C) methionyl-tRNA (D) glycyl-tRNA

Puromycin Structural Analog of Tyrosyl-tRNA

Q.19 The number of fragments generated when the peptide 'ANDCQEGKFMLKPDTWRYVSFMRPA' is subjected to complete digestion with trypsin are ......

Trypsin Digestion Peptide Fragments

Q.18 Which type of polyacrylamide gel can be used for analyzing the four different proteins listed below? Protein P: 60kDa, pI4 Protein Q: 45 kDa , pI 8 Protein R: 60 kDa , pI 6 Protein S: 45kDa, pI7.5 (A) 20% gel, pH4 −7 (B) 20% gel, pH3 −10 (C) 12% gel, pH3 − 10 (D) 12%gel, pH4 −7

Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis

Q.17 Which one of the following techniques CANNOT be used to determine the sequence of a novel protein? (A) De novo sequencing by ESI-MS/MS (B) Edman degradation (C) Sanger sequencing (D) Peptide mass fingerprinting

Protein Sequencing Techniques

Q.16 The molecular weight of a protein as determined by native PAGE is 400 kDa . This protein when run on a non-reducing SDS-PAGE gave a band of 200 kDa , and on a reducing SDS-PAGE, gave a band of 100 kDa . The protein has (A) four subunits of which two sets are linked by two disulfide bridges (B) four subunits which are linked by four disulfide bridges (C) two subunits only and none are linked by disulfide bridges (D) two subunits which are linked by disulfide bridges

Protein Molecular Weight Native

Q.15 The major product in the following reaction is

Pinacol Rearrangement Explained

Q.14 If mono-chlorination occurs at every carbon in the following reaction, the number of isomers (stereo isomers + constitutional isomers) that one can have is (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

Monochlorination Isomers of 1-Bromopropane

Q.13 The type of nucleophilic substitution and the possible products for each of the reactions 𝑷 and 𝑸 are

Nucleophilic Substitution in Alkyl Bromides

Q.12 One gram of a protein is dissolved in one liter of water. The resulting solution exerts an osmotic pressure of 1.4 Torr at 298 K. Assuming that the protein does not ionize in solution, the molecular weight of the protein is ____ 𝐠𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝟏 . (𝐑 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟖𝟐𝐋𝐚𝐭𝐦𝐦𝐨𝐥−𝟏 𝐊 −𝟏 )

Protein Molecular Weight from Osmotic Pressure

Q.11 The EMF of the following cell at 298.15 K is Ag(s)|Ag+(0.01 M)||Ag+(0.1 M)|Ag(s) (Standard reduction potential for Ag+ + e– → Ag = -0.80 V) (A) 0.12 V (B) 0.08 V (C) 0.80 V (D) 0.92 V

EMF of Ag(s)|Ag+(0.01 M)||Ag+(0.1 M)|Ag(s) Cell

Q.10 For a reaction A + B → products, the following data was obtained: [A] (M) [B] (M) Initial rate 0.1 0.1 r 0.2 0.1 4r [A]₀ and [B]₀ are initial concentrations of A and B respectively. The overall order of the reaction is (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

Determining Overall Order of Reaction

Q.9 Assuming independent non-interacting electrons, the first ionization energy of Helium atom is (A) 13.6 eV (B) 27.2 eV (C) 54.4 eV (D) 108.8 eV

First Ionization Energy of Helium Atom

Q.8 The octahedral metal oxide with the highest CFSE value is (A) ZnO (B) MnO (C) VO (D) TiO

Octahedral Metal Oxide with Highest CFSE Value

Q.7 The decreasing order of bond lengths for 𝐎𝟐, 𝐁𝟐, 𝐍𝟐 and 𝐂𝟐 is (A) B2 > C2 > N2 > O2 (B) B2 > C2 > O2 > N2 (C) N2 > C2 > O2 > B2 (D) B2 > O2 > N2 > C2

Decreasing Order of Bond Lengths

Q.6 The pair of molecules having non-linear structures is (A) ICl2 −and BeH2 (B) CS2 and I3 − (C) SCl2 and ClO2 − (D) XeF2 and CN2 2−

Pair of Molecules Having Non-Linear Structures

Q.5 The correct order of stability in water is

Order of Stability of Carbocations in Water

4. The compound that gives characteristic foul smell upon heating with potassium hydroxide and chloroform is

Carbylamine Test Explained

The extensive quantity among the following is (A) Pressure (B) Temperature (C) Chemical potential (D) Volume

Extensive and Intensive Properties in Thermodynamics

Molecules that are NOT isoelectronic to 𝐍𝐎𝟐 +ion are (A) CO2 and N3 − (B) NCO−and H3BCN − (C) BO2 −and H3CC ≡ CH (D) OF2 and O3 −

Isoelectronic Species NO2+

Q1. CO reacts readily with (A) Fe (B) Fe2+ (C) Fe4+ (D) Fe3+

CO reacts readily with which iron ion?

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