Category: GATE Life Science 2022 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

Category: GATE Life Science 2022 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

GATE Life Science 2022 Previous Year Papers with Solutions – Complete Preparation Guide

The GATE Life Science (XL) 2022 examination highlighted the importance of concept-based learning, analytical thinking, and systematic practice of previous year questions. For aspirants aiming to score high, GATE Life Science 2022 previous year papers with detailed solutions serve as the most authentic and exam-oriented preparation resource.

At Let’s Talk Academy, GATE preparation is structured around previous year papers (PYQs) to ensure students focus strictly on high-yield and repeatedly tested concepts.

Why GATE Life Science 2022 Previous Year Papers Are Important

GATE Life Science is designed to test more than theoretical knowledge. The exam evaluates:

  • Depth of biological concepts
  • Application of fundamentals across disciplines
  • Numerical and analytical problem-solving skills
  • Scientific reasoning and data interpretation

By solving GATE Life Science 2022 PYQs, aspirants can:

  • Understand the exact difficulty level of the exam
  • Identify repeated and high-weightage topics
  • Learn the structure of NATs, MSQs, and numerical questions
  • Improve speed, accuracy, and confidence
  • Align preparation with the actual GATE question style

Previous year papers act as the most reliable mirror of the real exam.

Subjects Covered in GATE Life Science 2022 PYQs

The GATE Life Science 2022 paper included questions from all major Life Science domains, such as:

  • Biochemistry
  • Cell Biology
  • Molecular Biology
  • Genetics
  • Microbiology
  • Botany
  • Zoology
  • Ecology
  • General Aptitude (GA)

Practicing PYQs subject-wise helps in targeted improvement, while full-length papers help simulate real exam conditions.

Importance of Solved GATE Life Science PYQs with Detailed Solutions

Attempting questions without proper explanations limits progress. Solved GATE Life Science 2022 PYQs with detailed explanations help aspirants to:

  • Understand the logic behind correct and incorrect options
  • Revise concepts directly linked to exam questions
  • Master numerical problem-solving techniques
  • Avoid common conceptual traps
  • Retain concepts for long-term application

Each PYQ, when analyzed properly, strengthens multiple topics at once.

Are There Mobile Apps That Provide GATE Life Science Past Papers and Practice Tests?

This is a very common question among GATE aspirants.

Are there mobile apps that provide GATE Life Science past papers and practice tests?

Yes. Let’s Talk Academy offers a dedicated mobile learning app designed specifically for Life Science aspirants. Through the Let’s Talk Academy app, students get access to:

  • GATE Life Science previous year papers with solutions
  • Topic-wise PYQ practice sets
  • Full-length practice tests based on GATE pattern
  • Concept-based video explanations
  • Downloadable PDFs for revision
  • Structured practice for self-study aspirants

The app is especially useful for students who prefer flexible, mobile-based preparation without compromising on quality or exam relevance.

How to Use GATE Life Science 2022 PYQs Effectively

To gain maximum benefit from previous year papers, aspirants should follow a disciplined strategy:

  • Start with topic-wise PYQs during concept building
  • Move to full-length GATE 2022 paper practice
  • Analyze every incorrect or guessed question thoroughly
  • Maintain a PYQ error and concept notebook
  • Revise weak areas immediately after analysis

Consistent analysis is far more important than solving a large number of papers.

Who Should Practice GATE Life Science 2022 PYQs?

  • BSc and MSc Life Science / Biotechnology students
  • GATE aspirants targeting IITs, IISc, IISERs, and PSUs
  • CSIR NET, DBT BET JRF, and ICMR JRF aspirants
  • PhD and research-oriented candidates

PYQs build a strong conceptual foundation useful across multiple competitive exams.

Why Let’s Talk Academy Focuses on PYQ-Based Learning

Let’s Talk Academy emphasizes previous year paper–driven preparation because it:

  • Eliminates unnecessary and irrelevant content
  • Improves conceptual clarity and accuracy
  • Builds exam confidence
  • Reflects real GATE expectations

This strategy has consistently helped Life Science aspirants improve performance and rank.

Final Conclusion

For GATE Life Science 2022, previous year question papers with detailed solutions are indispensable. When combined with mobile-based practice through the Let’s Talk Academy app, PYQs become even more powerful, enabling flexible, focused, and exam-oriented preparation.

Whether you are a self-study aspirant or guided learner, make GATE Life Science PYQs the core of your strategy and let real exam questions shape your success.

Q.103 The average body length of Drosophila nasuta collected from Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 2 mm. From this population, a few males and females having a body length of 3 mm were selected and interbred. The average body length of the resultant progeny was 2.5 mm. The heritability (h2) of the body length in this population is ______. (round off to one decimal place)

Drosophila Nasuta Body Length Heritability

Q.102 A typical food chain involves producers, herbivores, primary carnivores and secondary carnivores. Based on Lindeman’s law of trophic efficiency, if producers have 40 kJ of energy, the energy that will be stored in secondary carnivores is _____ kJ. (round off to two decimal places)

Lindeman’s Law of Trophic Efficiency

Q.101 If the vital capacity (VC) of an individual is 4900 ml, the tidal volume (TV) is 500 ml, and the inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is 3300 ml, the expiratory reserve volume (ERV) of the individual is ________ml. (in integer).

Calculate Expiratory Reserve Volume

Q100 Match the animal inactivity behaviors listed in Column I with representative animals in Column II and descriptions in Column III Column I Column II Column III P. Torpor (i) Polar Bears a. Prolonged period of inactivity without reducing body temperature which accompanies extended periods of dryness Q. Hibernation (ii) Ground Squirrels b. Decreased metabolism occurring with lowered body temperature for weeks or months R. Winter sleep (iii) Hummingbirds c. Decreased metabolism and lower body temperature for weeks or months S. Aestivation (iv) Australian burrowing frogs d. Increased metabolism with lowered body temperature Options: (A) P-(i)-(a), Q-(ii)-(b), R-(iii)-(c), S-(iv)-(d) (B) P-(iv)-(c), Q-(i)-(b), R-(ii)-(a), S-(iii)-(d) (C) P-(iv)-(b), Q-(ii)-(c), R-(i)-(a), S-(iii)-(d) (D) P-(ii)-(c), Q-(iv)-(a), R-(i)-(b), S-(iii)-(a)

Animal Inactivity Behaviors

Q.99 According to Abbe’s equation on microscopy, the ability to resolve two entities inside a cell by light microscopy depends on which of the following factor/s? (A) Magnification of the objective lens (B) Intensity of incident light (C) Wavelength (D) Numerical aperture of the objective lens

Abbe’s Equation Microscopy

Q.98 2-Deoxyglucose (2-DG) inhibits the proliferation of cells and hence finds use as an anti-cancer agent. It is also used in COVID therapy, where it blocks hyperproliferation of virus-infected cells. Mechanistically, 2-DG blocks glycolysis by inhibiting the activities of which of the following enzyme/s? (A) Hexokinase (B) Glucose 6-phosphate isomerase (C) Glucose-6 phosphate dehydrogenase (D) Phosphofructokinase

2-Deoxyglucose Glycolysis Inhibition

Q97. Match the hormones listed in Column I with their primary source tissues listed in Column II and the primary target tissues listed in Column III Column I Column II Column III P. Epinephrine (i) Hypothalamus a. Pituitary Q. Prolactin (ii) Thyroid b. Heart R. Calcitonin (iii) Pituitary c. Bone S. Thyrotropin releasing hormone (iv) Chromaffin tissue d. Pigeon's crop (A) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i), d (B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii), d (C) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), R-(i), c, a (D) P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(i), a

Hormone Sources and Targets Matching

Q96 Match the ecological concepts listed in Column I with their definitions listed in Column II. Column I Column II P. Dominance hierarchies (i) Giving up one's own reproductive potential to benefit another individual Q. Territory (ii) Selection acting on related animals which affects fitness of an individual R. Altruism (iii) Exclusion of an individual using aggressive behaviour competing individuals using S. Kin selection (iv) Preferential access to the food and mates in a group (A) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii) (B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i) (C) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii) (D) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(i)

Ecological Concepts Matching

Q95. Match the cell types listed in Column I with their sources in Column II and the primary functional roles listed in Column III. Column I Column II Column III P. Microglial cells (i) Lung a. Visual transduction Q. Leydig cells (ii) Eyes b. Hormone secretion R. ON cells (iii) Brain c. Phagocytosis S. Pneumocytes (iv) Testis d. Gaseous exchange (A) P-(iii)-b, Q-(iv)-c, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d (B) P-(ii)-c, Q-(iv)-d, R-(i)-a, S-(iii)-b (C) P-(i)-a, Q-(iv)-b, R-(ii)-c, S-(iii)-d (D) P-(iii)-c, Q-(iv)-b, R-(ii)-a, S-(i)-d

Microglial Cells Lung Leydig Cells ON Cells Pneumocytes

Q94 Match the animal listed in Column I with primary tissue or organ of residence in the host listed in Column II Column I Column II P. Ascaris lumbricoides (i) Subcutaneous tissue and lymph nodes Q. Dracunculus medinensis (ii) Small intestine and lymph nodes R. Enterobius vermicularis (iii) Lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes S. Wuchereria bancrofti (iv) Caecum or vermiform appendix (A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iv) (B) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iv) (C) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii) (D) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)

Dracunculus medinensis Subcutaneous Tissue

Q93. Match the chemicals listed in Column I with the developmental physiological defects listed in Column II Column I Column II P. Veratrum alkaloids (i) Cyclopia syndrome Q. Thalidomide (ii) Phocomelia R. Diethylstilbestrol (iii) Minamata syndrome S. Methylmercury (iv) Obesity syndrome (A) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) (B) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii) (C) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(i) (D) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(iv), S-(i)

Teratogens Causing Developmental Defects

Q.92 Animals can be classified as ‘specialists’ or ‘generalists’ with respect to diet and habitat selection. Which of the following organism/s belong/s to the specialist category? (A) Raccoon (B) Panda (C) Polar Bear (D) Koala Bear

Animals Classified as Specialists or Generalists

Q.91 In the human body, which of the following is/are involved in processing of a foreign antigen? (A) B-cells (B) Macrophages (C) Red blood cells (D) Platelets

Processing of Foreign Antigen in Human Body

Q.90 Which of the following is/are responsible for reversible receptorligand interaction? (A) Ionic interactions (B) Hydrogen bonding (C) Peptide bonding (D) Hydrophobic interactions

Reversible Receptor-Ligand Interactions

Q.89 Mendel deduced the genetic principle of inheritance by experimenting on sweet pea plants. One of the experiments involved crossing plants with two contrasting characters, tall (dominant) and dwarf (recessive), which yielded all tall plants in the first generation. When the same genetic cross was independently repeated by a researcher, only short plants were obtained. Which one of the following can possibly explain the altered outcome? (A) Tall plants were heterozygous (B) An enhancer for the tall allele is present in the dwarf plant (C) A suppressor for the tall allele is present in the dwarf plant (D) Dwarf plants are homozygous

Mendel Tall Dwarf Cross

Q.88 The action of which class of enzyme inhibitors can be reversed by adding an excess of substrate? (A) Uncompetitive inhibitors (B) Competitive inhibitors (C) Non-specific inhibitors (D) Allosteric inhibitors

Enzyme Inhibitors Reversed by Excess Substrate

Q.87 To which class of Drosophila developmental genes does fushi tarazu (ftz) belong? (A) Gap genes (B) Segment polarity genes (C) Pair rule genes (D) Maternal effect genes

Fushi Tarazu (ftz) Gene

Q.86 Which one of the following animals develops adaptive predator avoidance morphology because of the presence of high predator number in its habitat? (A) Daphnia sp. (B) Scaphiopus sp. (C) Wolbachia sp. (D) Rhodnius sp.

Adaptive Predator Avoidance Morphology in Daphnia sp

Q.85 Which one of the following organic compounds is composed of only (i) a nitrogen containing base, (ii) a single five-carbon sugar, and (iii) a triphosphate? (A) Nucleoside (B) Nucleotide (C) Base (D) Nucleic acid

 Nucleotide Composition

Q.84 What will be value of the Numerical Aperture (NA), if half aperture angle is 58° and oil immersed objective is used for the process of light microscopy? (Answer up to 1 decimal place) Consider Sin 58° = 0.85 and refractive index of immersion oil used is = 1.50.

Numerical Aperture Calculation

Q.83 Escherichia coli growing under favorable conditions doubles in every 20 minutes. If the initial number of Escherichia coli cells is 100, what will be the logarithmic number of cells at 17th generation? (Answer up to 1 decimal place)

Escherichia Coli Cell Number at 17th Generation

Q.82 If the plasmid given below is digested with restriction enzymes HindIII and EcoRI, considering complete digestion, how many DNA fragments will be released?

Plasmid Digested with HindIII and EcoRI

Q.81 Which of the following statements are TRUE for archaea? (A) Cell wall in archaea contains muramic acid and D-amino acid (B) N-Formylmethionine is the first amino acid to initiate new polypeptide chain synthesis in archaea (C) Methionine is the first amino acid used during protein synthesis in archaea (D) Membrane of archaea contains phytanyl rather than fatty acids

Archaea Cell Wall Protein Synthesis Membrane Lipids

Q.80 Which of the following Gram-positive cocci are found in biofilm of dental plaque? (A) Gonococcus (B) Streptococcus mutans (C) Streptococcus sobrinus (D) Fusobacterium species

 Gram-Positive Cocci in Dental Plaque Biofilm

Q.79 Which of the following diseases are caused by family of DNA viruses? (A) Hepatitis B (B) Smallpox (C) Influenza (D) Rabies

Diseases Caused by DNA Viruses

Q78 The correct sequence of overall biochemical reaction which expresses the process of denitrification is Option Sequence (A) NO₃⁻ → NO₂⁻ → NO → N₂O → N₂ (B) NO₃⁻ → NO₂⁻ → N₂O → NO → N₂ (C) NO₂⁻ → NO → NO₂⁻ → N₂O → N₂ (D) NO₃⁻ → NO → NO → NO₂⁻ → N₂

Correct Sequence of Denitrification Biochemical Reaction

Q.77 Match the correct mode of cell division with respective bacteria. Bacteria (P) Streptomyces species (Q) Rhodopseudomonas acidophila (R) Bacillus subtilis (S) Nocardia species (A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv) (B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(i), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv) (C) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii) (D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

 Bacterial Cell Division Modes

Q76 Match the pathogen with the appropriate disease. Pathogen Disease (P) Streptococcus pyogenes (i) Scarlet fever (Q) Brucella species (ii) Pot’s disease (R) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (iii) Traveler’s diarrhea (S) Escherichia coli (iv) Undulant fever (A) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iv) (B) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv) (C) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(ii), (S)-(iii) (D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

Scarlet Fever to Traveler’s Diarrhea

Q75 Choose the correct match for structural components of bacteria to their function. Structural component Function (P) Flagella (i) prevent lysis (Q) Cell wall (ii) chemotaxis (R) Metachromatic granules (iii) storage for ATP (S) Magnetosomes (iv) cell orientation (A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(v) (B) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv) (C) (P)-(iii), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(i) (D) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(ii)

Bacterial Structural Components Functions Matching

Q.74 Nonsense suppressor mutation is found in _________________. (A) rRNA (B) tRNA (C) start codon of mRNA (D) stop codon of mRNA

Nonsense Suppressor Mutation in tRNA

Q.73 Which of the following are present in Gram-negative bacteria? (A) Lipopolysaccharide (B) Teichoic acid (C) Periplasm (D) Endotoxin

Gram-Negative Bacteria Components

Q.72 Which of the following methods are used for the identification of microorganisms? (A) Nucleic acid hybridization (B) Southern blotting (C) 16s rRNA sequencing (D) Percentage G-C content

Methods for Identification of Microorganisms

Q.71 Phenolics act as disinfectant by ____________. (A) rupturing plasma membrane followed by leakage of cellular contents (B) bond formation between adjacent pyrimidine bases (C) forming adduct with amino acid and unsaturated fatty acids (D) alkylation of proteins

Phenolics Act as Disinfectant Mechanism

Q.70 The antimicrobial activity of vancomycin is due to the ____________. (A) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis (B) damage to the cytoplasmic membrane (C) inhibition of cell wall synthesis (D) regulation of DNA supercoiling

Vancomycin Antimicrobial Activity

Q.69 The site of photosynthesis in cyanobacteria is ____________. (A) Chloroplast (B) Chromatophores (C) Thylakoids (D) Chlorosomes

Site of Photosynthesis in Cyanobacteria

Q.68 Which one of the following leukocytes are present in the largest proportion in healthy human blood? (A) Neutrophils (B) Eosinophils (C) Basophiles (D) Monocytes

Which Leukocytes Are Most Abundant in Healthy Human Blood?

Q.67 Which one of the following mutagens convert DNA’s adenine to hypoxanthine? (A) Ultraviolet light (B) Mitomycin C (C) Methyl methanesulfonate (D) Nitrous acid

Which Mutagen Converts DNA Adenine to Hypoxanthine?

Q.66 The terminal acceptor of electron during anaerobic respiration in Methanococcus is ______________. (A) Nitrate ion (B) Sulfate ion (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Oxygen

Terminal Electron Acceptor

Q.65 A hypothetical plant gene ADSH22 is encoded by the nuclear genome. The length of the mature mRNA for ADSH22 is 2150 nucleotides (nts). This mRNA has a 270 nts long 5′ UTR and 200 nts long 3′ UTR. Taking average molecular weight of an amino acid as 115 Dalton (Da), the calculated molecular weight of ADSH22 protein is ________ kDa (round off to 1 decimal place).

Calculating ADSH22 Protein Molecular Weight from mRNA Length

Q.64 When a true breeding tall plant containing red flowers was crossed with the true breeding dwarf plant containing white flowers, all F1 plants were tall with red flowers. When the F1 plant was self-pollinated, considering independent assortment of plant height and flower colour traits, the calculated percentage probability of dwarf plants bearing red flowers in the F2 generation is ________ percent (round off to 2 decimal places).

Dihybrid Cross Probability

Q.63 Which of the following is/are phanerogamic parasite(s)? (A) Cuscuta reflexa (B) Orobanche cernua (C) Ocimum sanctum (D) Santalum album

Phanerogamic Parasites

Q.62 Which of the following matches is/are CORRECT? (A) Surface fibre – Cotton – Gossypium hirsutum (B) Bast fibre – Flax – Corchorus capsularis (C) Drying oil – Safflower oil – Helianthus annuus (D) Non-drying oil – Castor oil – Ricinus communis

Surface Fibre Cotton, Bast Fibre Flax, Drying Oil Safflower, Non-Drying Oil Castor

Q61 Make CORRECT match between Group-I and Group-II, in relation to interaction between two species. Group-I Group-II P. Neutralism I. neither can survive under natural condition without the other species Q. Allelopathy II. direct inhibition of one species by the other species using toxic compound R. Amensalism III. neither is affected by the association with the other S. Mutualism IV. one is inhibited and the other is not affected (A) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV (B) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I (C) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I

Correct match of Neutralism, Allelopathy, Amensalism and Mutualism in species interactions

Q60 Match Group I (plant disease), Group II (causal organism) and Group III (affected plant) in CORRECT combination. Group I Group II Group III P. Kamal Bunt I. Phytophthora infestans a. Rice Q. Ergot II. Ustilago maydis b. Potato R. Smut III. Blumeria graminis c. Rye S. Powdery mildew IV. Puccinia recondita d. Wheat V. Claviceps purpurea e. Barley VI. Alternaria solani f. Brinjal Options: (A) P-II, a; Q-V, b; R-III, d; S-I, e (B) P-III, d; Q-V, c; R-I, e; S-IV, f (C) P-IV, Q-V, R-I, S-IE (D) P-V, c; Q-I, d; R-VI, b; S-IE

Plant Disease Matching

Q.59 Match Group I (plant natural product), Group II (class) and Group III (source) in CORRECT combination. Group-I Group-II Group-III P. Reserpine I. Stibenes a. Manhot esculenta Q. Picrocrocin II. Cyanogenic glycoside b. Crocus sativus R. Linamarin III. Alkaloid glycoside c. Vitis vinifera S. Raouficarpine IV. Monoterpene glycoside d. Rauwolfia serpentina (A) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III (B) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-II (C) P-II, Q-III, R-I, S-IV (D) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II

Plant Natural Products Matching

Q58 Match Group-I (selection agent) and Group-II (gene) in CORRECT combination. Group-I Group-II P. Kanamycin I. nptII Q. Hygromycin II. bar R. Phosphinothricin III. pat S. Mannose IV. ptxD V. hpt (A) P-III, Q-VI, R-I, S-IV (B) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I (C) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-V (D) P-II, Q-I, R-V, S-VI

Match Group-I (selection agent) and Group-II (gene)

Q57 Match Group-I (enzyme), Group-II (reaction catalysed by the enzyme), Group-III (subcellular localization of the enzyme and the associated metabolic process) Group-I Group-II Group-III P. PEP carboxylase Q. Rubisco R. Glycolate oxidase S. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 1. 2 Glycolate + 2H−O− 2. Pyruvate + NAD+ + CO2 → Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH 3. HCO3−Oleate + Pi 4. 3 (Ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate) + 3CO2 → 6 3-phosphoglycerate + 6H+ a. Cytosol − C4 cycle b. Peroxisome − aerobic respiration c. Mitochondria − aerobic respiration d. Cytoplasm − Glycolysis (A) P-IIa, Q-IVd, R-Ib, S-IIIc (B) P-Ia, Q-IVd, R-Ib, S-IIIc (C) P-IVa, Q-IIb, R-Id, S-IIIc (D) P-IVa, Q-IId, R-Ib, S-IIIc

Rubisco PEP Carboxylase Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Matching

Q56 Match the secondary metabolites in Group-I with types of secondary metabolites in Group-II in CORRECT order. P. Myrcene I. Sesquiterpene Q. Quercetin II. Cyanogenic glycoside R. β-Farnesene III. Flavonoid glycoside S. Nicotine IV. Alkaloid T. Luteolin V. Monoterpene (A) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III, T-V (B) P-V, Q-II, R-IV, S-I, T-III (C) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-V, T-II (D) P-V, Q-I, R-II, S-IV, T-III

Secondary Metabolites Matching

Q.55 An Arabidopsis thaliana mutant plant developed defective flowers with altered floral organ identity and patterning. In this mutant, the four floral whorls contain Sepal-Sepal-Carpel-Carpel, from the periphery to the center of the flower. Based on the typical ABC model of floral organ patterning, which among the following are mutated in this plant? (A) Class A gene(s) (B) Class B gene(s) (C) Class C gene(s) (D) Double mutant for Class A and Class C genes

Arabidopsis Thaliana Mutant Sepal-Sepal-Carpel-Carpel

Q.54 In NADP+-malic enzyme type C4 photosynthesis cycle, n molecule(s) of ATP is/are required for the assimilation of one molecule of CO2. The value of n is ________ (in integer).

NADP-Malic Enzyme C4 Photosynthesis ATP Requirement

Q.53 Which of the following is/are part of marine ecosystem? (A) Open ocean (B) Chaparral (C) Deep sea (D) Estuaries

Marine Ecosystem Components

Q.52 Phylogenetic system of classification is/are proposed by (A) Carolus Linnaeus (B) John Hutchinson (C) Engler and Prantl (D) Bentham and Hooker

Phylogenetic System of Classification Was Proposed By Which Botanists?

Q.51 Which of the following plant diseases is/are caused by bacteria? (A) Angular leaf spot of cotton (B) Citrus canker (C) Apple scab (D) Leaf curl of papaya

 Bacterial Plant Diseases

Q.50 Anomalous secondary growth is observed in (A) Triticum (B) Oryza (C) Zea (D) Dracaena

Anomalous Secondary Growth in Dracaena

Q49 With reference to virulence (vir) genes of wild type Agrobacterium tumefaciens (match Group-I (vir gene) and Group-II (encoded protein) in CORRECT combination. P virA Q virB R virD S I Single strand DNA-binding protein II Topoisomerase, channel for T-DNA III Sensor protein, constitutive expression IV (A) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III (B) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II (C) P-IV, Q-II, R-III, S-I (D) P-I, Q-III, R-II, S-IV

Agrobacterium Virulence Genes Matching

Q.48 ‘Quiescent Center’ is present in (A) leaf meristem (B) root apical meristem (C) shoot apical meristem (D) floral meristem

Quiescent Center in Root Apical Meristem

Q.47 In Angiosperms, normally ‘Exarch Xylem’ occurs in (A) dicot stem (B) monocot stem (C) dicot root (D) dicot leaf

Exarch Xylem in Angiosperms

Q.46 A forty-times diluted sample of ssRNA gave an 𝐴260 of 0.01 . The concentration of the ssRNA before the dilution in μ𝑔/𝑚𝐿 was _____ (correct to the nearest integer).

ssRNA Concentration Calculation

Q.45 The half-maximal velocity of an enzyme catalyzed reaction was found at a substrate concentration of 0.5 × 10-6 𝑀. This enzyme follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor, the half-maximal velocity was found at a substrate concentration of 1.5 × 10-6 𝑀. Given that the enzyme- inhibitor pair has a dissociation constant of 2 × 10-7 𝑀, the concentration of the competitive inhibitor in μ𝑀 , rounded off to one place of decimal, was_____.

Competitive Inhibitor Concentration Calculation in Michaelis-Menten Kinetics

Q.44 The dissociation constant for a receptor-ligand pair is 0.25 × 10-7𝑀 . The ligand was added to a solution of the receptor such that the receptor was 50% saturated at equilibrium. Assume that the receptor has one ligand binding site. The concentration of the free ligand at equilibrium in 𝑛𝑀 , correct to the nearest integer, should be _____.

Calculating Free Ligand Concentration at 50% Receptor Saturation

Q43 The standard free energy changes for conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) to pyruvate, ATP synthesis are shown below. PEP + H₂O ⇌ pyruvate + Pᵢ                 ΔG°' = −61 kJ mol⁻¹ ADP + Pᵢ ⇌ ATP + H₂O                         ΔG°' = 30.5 kJ mol⁻¹ The starting concentrations of PEP, ADP, pyruvate, and ATP are 25, 20, 50, and 85 mM respectively. Value of universal gas constant (R) is 8.315 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹. The actual free energy change in kJ mol⁻¹ for the reaction                                                                                PEP + ADP → pyruvate + ATP carried out at 37°C will be ______ (rounded off to one place of decimal).

Calculate Actual Free Energy Change PEP to Pyruvate ATP Synthesis at 37°C

Q.42 Which of the following statements about IgA is/are correct? (A) It is secreted into colostrum. (B) It is transported across the cell by transcytosis. (C) Its secretion is facilitated by poly-Ig receptor. (D) It primarily exists as a dimer in serum.

 IgA in Colostrum, Transcytosis, Poly-Ig Receptor, and Serum Dimer

Q.41 Which of the following carbohydrates has/have a 𝛽1 → 4 glycosidic linkage? (A) Cellulose (B) Chitin (C) Lactose (D) Maltose

β1→4 Glycosidic Linkage in Carbohydrates

Q.40 Purification of 6×His-tagged protein using Ni-NTA column is an example of ________ (A) affinity chromatography (B) hydrophobic-interaction chromatography (C) ion-exchange chromatography (D) size-exclusion chromatography

Purification of 6×His-Tagged Protein Using Ni-NTA Column

Q.39 Which one of the following enzymes converts testosterone to estradiol? (A) Aromatase (B) 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (C) 5α-reductase (D) 17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

 Which Enzyme Converts Testosterone to Estradiol?

Q.38 Which of the following statements about endogenous synthesis of insulin are correct? P. Insulin is synthesized as preproinsulin. Q. Preproinsulin is converted to proinsulin. R. Single-site cleavage of proinsulin eliminates C chain. S. Mature insulin consists of disulphide-linked A and B chains. (A) P, Q, and R (B) P, Q, and S (C) P, R, and S (D) Q, R, and S

Endogenous Insulin Synthesis Preproinsulin Proinsulin

Q.37 Two RNAs shown below were used separately as templates in an in vitro translation system, which can generate proteins in all possible reading frames. RNA1: 5' − (AG)n − 3' RNA2: 5' − (AAG)n − 3' The 𝑅𝑁𝐴1 translated product contained Arg and Glu. The 𝑅𝑁𝐴2 translated product contained Arg, Glu, and Lys. Which one of the following codons directs the incorporation of Arg? (A) AAG (B) AGA (C) GAA (D) GAG

(AG)n (AAG)n RNA Translation

Q.36 Filamentous photosynthetic algae were placed on a microscopic slide and illuminated with light of different colors as illustrated. The bacteria that are known to migrate towards the region of high 𝑂ଶ were also added uniformly on the slide. Which one of the following options illustrates the distribution of bacteria along the length of the microscopic slide after illumination?

Thomas Engelmann’s Filamentous Algae Experiment

Q.35 The absorbance of a 5 × 10−4 M solution of tyrosine at 280 nm wavelength is 0.75. The path length of the cuvette is 1 cm. The molar absorption coefficient at the given wavelength in M−1cm−1, correct to the nearest integer, is _____.

Molar Absorptivity Tyrosine 280 nm

Q.34 The number of ATP molecules required for the complete assimilation of one molecule of CO2 in Calvin cycle is _____.

ATP Molecules Required for One CO2 Assimilation in Calvin Cycle

Q.33 The 𝑝𝐾a values of the carboxylic and amino groups of an amino acid with a non-ionizable side chain are 2.17 and 9.13 , respectively. The isoelectric point (rounded off to two places of decimals) of this amino acid is _____.

Isoelectric Point Calculation for Amino Acid pKa

Q.32 A dye was allowed to undergo migration on a chromatographic paper using a solvent. The dye, and the solvent-front migrated 5 and 20 𝑐𝑚 , respectively, from the point of origin. The retention factor (rounded off to two places of decimals) for the dye is _____.

Retention Factor in Paper Chromatography Calculation

Q.31 Which one of the following compounds is NOT a translation inhibitor? (A) Chloramphenicol (B) Cycloheximide (C) Puromycin (D) Rifampicin

Translation Inhibitors in Molecular Biology

Q.30 Which one of the following statements about the DNA polymerase III of E. coli is NOT correct? (A) It catalyzes nick translation. (B) Its absence is lethal to E. coli. (C) It synthesizes a complementary DNA strand using a single-stranded template. (D) It possesses 3′ → 5′ exonuclease activity.

DNA Polymerase III E. coli: Which Statement is NOT Correct?

Q.29 Which one of the following enzymes is located in the outer mitochondrial membrane? (A) Citrate synthase (B) Fumarase (C) Monoamine oxidase (D) Succinate dehydrogenase

Outer Mitochondrial Membrane Enzymes

Q.28 Which of the immune cells listed below are agranular? P. Eosinophils Q. Mast cells R. Monocytes S. T-cells (A) P and Q only (B) Q and R only (C) R and S only (D) S and P only

Which Immune Cells Are Agranular?

Q27. A metal surface emits 4.16 × 1016 photons in 1 second. This monochromatic light emits photoelectrons (in A) in the second. When this light incidents on metal strip, (round off to one decimal place) of the emitted photoelectrons. Given: Work function of the metal = 2.0 eV Charge of an electron = 1.6 × 10-19 C Planck's constant = 6.626 × 10-34 Js

Photoelectric Effect

Q26 The equilibrium constant for isomerization of cis-butene to trans-butene at 27°C is (round off to one decimal place). Given: Gas constant = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 ΔG° of cis-butene = -71.9 kJ mol-1 ΔG° of trans-butene = -69 kJ mol-1

Equilibrium Constant for 1-Butene to Trans-2-Butene Isomerization at 27°C

Q.25 The total number of 3-centre-2-electron bonds in B4H10 is ______ (in integer).

Number of 3-Centre-2-Electron Bonds in B4H10

Q.24 An aqueous solution of aspirin (HA) is prepared at pH 7.4. The ratio of concentration of A- and HA at equilibrium is ______ (round off to the nearest integer). Given: Ka of aspirin is 3.98 × 10–4

Aspirin A- HA Ratio at pH 7.4

Q.23 Consider the following reaction: The CORRECT pathway(s) involved in the reaction is/are (A) E2 followed by isomerization (B) E1 followed by isomerization (C) SN1 followed by isomerization (D) Isomerization through carbocation

Acid Catalyzed Dehydration of 1-Phenylethanol to Styrene

Q.22 Consider the following enzyme catalyzed reaction: where E is enzyme, S is substrate, ES is enzyme-substrate complex and P is product. The CORRECT statement(s) for the above reaction is/are (A) Maximum possible rate of product formation is dependent on k2 and initial concentration of enzyme. (B) For a low substrate concentration, the rate of product formation is first order with respect to enzyme and also first order with respect to the substrate. (C) The rate of product formation is independent of the concentration of enzyme- substrate complex. (D) For a very high substrate concentration, initial rate of product formation is zero order with respect to the substrate.

Enzyme Catalyzed Reaction Kinetics

Q.21 Consider the following reaction: The CORRECT statement(s) related to mono-chlorination at carbon-2 position is/are (A) The reaction proceeds through alkyl radical intermediate (B) Complete inversion of configuration at carbon-2 takes place (C) Complete retention of configuration at carbon-2 takes place (D) A mixture of enantiomers is formed

Free Radical Monochlorination at Carbon-2

Q20 Among the following statements about cobalt complexes, which are CORRECT? Given: Atomic number of Co is 27 (A) [Co(NH₃)₄]²⁺ exhibits square planar geometry (B) [Co(en)₂]³⁺ does not show optical isomerism (en = ethylenediamine) (C) [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is paramagnetic in nature (D) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ shows ligand-to-metal charge transfer

[Co(NH3)6]3+ Geometry, Isomerism, Magnetic Properties

Q19 A sample of benzene, contaminated with a non-volatile and non-ionic solute, boils at 0.31°C higher than that of pure benzene. The molality of the contaminated solution is _____ (round off to two decimal places). Given: Gas constant = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 Normal boiling point of benzene = 80.1 °C Enthalpy of vaporization of benzene = 30.76 kJ mol-1

Boiling Point Elevation Benzene Non-Volatile Solute Molality Calculation

Q18 Molar conductance of monobromoacetic acid at infinite dilution is calculated as x × 10-4 S m2 mol-1 at 25°C. The value of x (round off to the nearest integer) Given: Electrolyte Λ° (in 10-4 S m2 mol-1) HBr 429.5 CH2BrCOOK 113.4 CH2BrCOOH 117.2 (A) 164 (B) 195 (C) 176 (D) 167

Molar Conductance Monobromoacetic Acid Infinite Dilution Kohlrausch Law Calculation

Q.17 The CORRECT order of basicity for the following compounds is (A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) II > I > III (D) III > I > II

Order of Basicity Pyrazole Imidazole 1,2,4-Triazole

Q.16 The bases present in DNA are (A) adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine (B) adenine, guanine, thymine and uracil (C) adenine, cytosine, thymine and uracil (D) cytosine, guanine, thymine and uracil

Bases Present in DNA

Q.15 Which of the following is the CORRECT statement about hexoses? (A) D-mannose is C- 4 epimer of D-glucose (B) D-galactose is C- 2 epimer of D-glucose (C) D-glucose and L-glucose are diastereomers (D) D-glucose and D-galactose are diastereomers

Hexoses Epimers – D-Mannose D-Glucose Galactose Diastereomers Explained

Q.14 Among the following, the one having smallest bond angle is (A) PH3 (B) PF3 (C) NF3 (D) NH3

Smallest Bond Angle in PH3, PF3, NF3, NH3

Q.13 Which among the following metal ions has the highest enthalpy of hydration? (Assume the given metal ions have the same counter ion.) Given: Atomic numbers of Ti, V, Cr and Mn are 22, 23, 24 and 25, respectively. (A) Ti2+ (B) V2+ (C) Cr2+ (D) Mn2+

Which Metal Ion Has Highest Enthalpy of Hydration

Q. 12 Which among the following has the least second ionization energy? (A) Al (B) Si (C) P (D)

Least Second Ionization Energy

Q.11 Consider a second order reaction,   2A -------->Product The concentration of A is represented as [A]. Which of the following is the CORRECT plot for determining the rate constant for the above reaction?

Second Order Reaction Rate Constant Plot

Q.10 An ant walks in a straight line on a plane leaving behind a trace of its movement. The initial position of the ant is at point P facing east. The ant first turns 72o anticlockwise at P, and then does the following two steps in sequence exactly FIVE times before halting. 1. moves forward for 10 cm. 2. turns 144o clockwise. The pattern made by the trace left behind by the ant is

Ant Turns 27° Anticlockwise Trace Pattern

Q.9 Given below are two statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements. Statement 1: Some soaps are clean. Statement 2: All clean objects are wet. Conclusion I: Some clean objects are soaps. Conclusion II: No clean object is a soap. Conclusion III: Some wet objects are soaps. Conclusion IV: All wet objects are soaps. Which one of the following options can be logically inferred? (A) Only conclusion I is correct (B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is correct (C) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct (D) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

Master Syllogism Reasoning

Q.8 Consider the following equations of straight lines: Line L1: 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 5 Line L2: 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 8 Line L3: 4𝑥 − 6𝑦 = 5 Line L4: 6𝑥 − 9𝑦 = 6 Which one among the following is the correct statement? (A) L1 is parallel to L2 and L1 is perpendicular to L3 (B) L2 is parallel to L4 and L2 is perpendicular to L1 (C) L3 is perpendicular to L4 and L3 is parallel to L2 (D) L4 is perpendicular to L2 and L4 is parallel to L3

Straight Lines Parallel Perpendicular

Q.7 In a partnership business the monthly investment by three friends for the first six months is in the ratio 3: 4: 5. After six months, they had to increase their monthly investments by 10%, 15% and 20%, respectively, of their initial monthly investment. The new investment ratio was kept constant for the next six months. What is the ratio of their shares in the total profit (in the same order) at the end of the year such that the share is proportional to their individual total investment over the year? (A) 22 : 23 : 24 (B) 22 : 33 : 50 (C) 33 : 46 : 60 (D) 63 : 86 : 110

Partnership Investment Ratio 3:4:5 with 10% 15% 20% Increases

Q.6 In the last few years, several new shopping malls were opened in the city. The total number of visitors in the malls is impressive. However, the total revenue generated through sales in the shops in these malls is generally low. Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information in the above passage? (A) Fewer people are visiting the malls but spending more (B) More people are visiting the malls but not spending enough (C) More people are visiting the malls and spending more (D) Fewer people are visiting the malls and not spending enough

Shopping Malls High Visitors Low Revenue

Q.5 For the picture shown above, which one of the following is the correct picture representing reflection with respect to the mirror shown as the dotted line?

Mirror Reflection Octagon

Q.4 A survey of 450 students about their subjects of interest resulted in the following outcome.  150 students are interested in Mathematics.  200 students are interested in Physics.  175 students are interested in Chemistry.  50 students are interested in Mathematics and Physics.  60 students are interested in Physics and Chemistry.  40 students are interested in Mathematics and Chemistry.  30 students are interested in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.  Remaining students are interested in Humanities. Based on the above information, the number of students interested in Humanities is (A) 10 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 45

Calculate Humanities Interest Using Venn Diagram

Q3 Both the numerator and the denominator of 3/4 are increased by a positive integer x, and those of 15/17 are decreased by the same integer. This operation results in the same value for both fractions. What is the value of x? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Solving Fraction Modification Problem with Positive Integer x

Q.2 𝑥 ∶ 𝑦 ∶ 𝑧= 1/2:1/3:1/4. What is the value of x+z-y/y ? (A) 0.75 (B) 1.25 (C) 2.25 (D) 3.25

Solve (x + z – y)/y for Ratio x:y:z = 1/2:1/3:1/4

Q.1 The movie was funny and I _________. (A) could help laughing (B) couldn’t help laughed (C) couldn’t help laughing (D) could helped laughed

Couldn’t Help Laughing Grammar Rule

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