Category: GATE Life Science 2014 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

GATE Life Science 2014 Previous Year Papers with Solutions – Complete Preparation Guide

The GATE Life Science (XL) 2014 question paper is a crucial resource for aspirants who want to understand the foundational concepts, analytical depth, and exam-oriented approach of GATE Life Science. Practicing GATE Life Science 2014 previous year papers with detailed solutions helps candidates build strong fundamentals and align their preparation with real GATE standards.

At Let’s Talk Academy, GATE Life Science preparation is firmly based on previous year question (PYQ)–driven learning, ensuring that students focus on authentic, high-yield content only.

Why GATE Life Science 2014 Previous Year Papers Are Important

GATE Life Science is a concept-intensive exam that emphasizes application and analysis rather than rote learning. The 2014 paper tested:

Core Life Science fundamentals
Conceptual and analytical reasoning
Numerical problem-solving skills
Interpretation of biological data

By solving GATE Life Science 2014 PYQs, aspirants can:

Understand the actual difficulty level of the GATE exam
Identify repeated and high-weightage topics
Learn the structure of MCQs, MSQs, and NAT questions
Improve accuracy, speed, and confidence
Develop the correct GATE exam mindset

Previous year papers serve as the most reliable benchmark for preparation.

Subjects Covered in GATE Life Science 2014 PYQs

The GATE Life Science 2014 paper covered all major domains, including:

Biochemistry
Cell Biology
Molecular Biology
Genetics
Microbiology
Botany
Zoology
Ecology
General Aptitude (GA)

Practicing subject-wise PYQs enables focused improvement, while full-length papers help simulate real exam conditions.

Importance of Solved GATE Life Science 2014 Papers with Detailed Solutions

Attempting questions without proper explanations limits progress. Solved GATE Life Science 2014 previous year papers with detailed solutions help aspirants to:

Understand why a particular option is correct or incorrect
Strengthen concepts directly tested in the exam
Learn exam-oriented numerical-solving approaches
Avoid common conceptual mistakes
Improve long-term retention of key topics

Each well-analyzed PYQ reinforces multiple chapters simultaneously.

How Do I Download GATE Life Science Previous Year Papers in PDF Format Legally?

This is one of the most common questions among serious GATE aspirants.

How do I download GATE Life Science previous year papers in PDF format legally?

The most reliable and legal way to download GATE Life Science previous year papers in PDF format is through Let’s Talk Academy.

Legal and Authentic PDF Access via Let’s Talk Academy

Let’s Talk Academy provides legally sourced and officially curated GATE Life Science PYQ PDFs, including the 2014 paper, through its learning platforms. These PDFs are:

Based strictly on official GATE question papers
Available in downloadable PDF format for offline study
Accompanied by detailed, concept-based solutions
Designed specifically for exam-oriented preparation
Regularly reviewed and updated for accuracy

By using Let’s Talk Academy resources, aspirants ensure they are studying from authentic, copyright-safe, and exam-relevant materials.

Avoid unofficial or memory-based sources, as they often contain errors, incomplete questions, or incorrect answer keys.

How to Use GATE Life Science 2014 PYQs Effectively

To maximize the benefit of previous year papers:

Start with topic-wise PYQs during concept building
Progress to full-length GATE 2014 paper practice
Analyze every incorrect or guessed question carefully
Maintain a PYQ mistake and concept notebook
Revise weak topics immediately after analysis

Quality analysis is far more important than the number of questions solved.

Who Should Practice GATE Life Science 2014 PYQs?

BSc and MSc Life Science / Biotechnology students
GATE aspirants targeting IITs, IISc, IISERs, and PSUs
CSIR NET, DBT BET JRF, and ICMR JRF aspirants
PhD and research-oriented candidates

PYQs help build a strong conceptual base applicable across multiple Life Science competitive examinations.

Why Let’s Talk Academy Emphasizes PYQ-Based Preparation

Let’s Talk Academy follows a previous year paper–driven preparation strategy because it:

Eliminates unnecessary syllabus overload
Improves conceptual clarity and accuracy
Builds exam confidence through real GATE questions
Aligns preparation with actual GATE expectations

This approach has consistently helped Life Science aspirants improve performance and rank.

Final Conclusion

For GATE Life Science 2014, previous year question papers with detailed solutions are indispensable for serious aspirants. When downloaded legally and authentically through Let’s Talk Academy, PYQs become the most powerful tool for understanding concepts, improving accuracy, and strengthening overall GATE preparation.

Make GATE Life Science PYQs the foundation of your strategy—and let real exam questions guide your success.

Q.105 Regions of higher abundance of cholesterol molecules on the plasma membrane will (A) be more fluid (B) result in clogged arteries as it can detach from the plasma membrane (C) be more rigid than the surrounding membrane (D) have higher rates of lateral movement of proteins into and out of plasma membrane

Cholesterol-Rich Membrane Regions

Q.104 Theoretically, it is possible to resurrect the extinct woolly mammoth by which ONE of the following methods? (A) Transferring cell nuclei from the frozen tissue into enucleated unfertilized eggs of a suitable mammal (B) Introducing sequenced mammoth genome into donor eggs of a suitable mammal (C) Transferring mammoth nuclear material into stem cells (D) Collection of oocytes from ovaries of the frozen mammoth for in vitro fertilization and transfer of fertilized eggs into animals such as elephants

Reviving the Woolly Mammoth

Q.103 A DNA fragment shown below has restriction sites I and II, which create fragments X, Y, and Z. Which ONE of the following agarose gel electrophoresis patterns represents the separation of these fragments?

DNA Restriction Fragment Separation on Agarose Gel

Q.102 Which ONE of the following combinations of products will result, when 3 molecules of acetyl CoA is fed into TCA cycle? (A) 1 ATP, 2 CO2, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2 (B) 3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH, and 3 FADH2 (C) 3 ATP, 3 CO2, 3 NADH, and 3 FADH2 (D) 38 ATP, 6 CO2, 3 NADH, and 12 FADH2

TCA Cycle Products

Q.101 Five dialysis bags (DB1-DB5), impermeable to sucrose, were filled with various concentrations of sucrose. The bags were placed in separate beakers containing 0.6 M sucrose solution. Every 10 minutes, the bags were weighed and the percent change in mass of each bag was plotted as a function of time. Which plot in the graph (X-axis representing time in minutes and Y-axis representing mass change in percentage) represent(s) bags that contain a solution that is hypertonic at 50 minutes? (A) DB2 (B) DB4 (C) DB3 (D) DB4 and DB5

Which Dialysis Bags Are Hypertonic?

Q.100 One individual has a parasitic worm infection and another is responding to an allergen such as pollen. Which ONE of the following features is common to both of them? (A) Increase in cytotoxic T cell population (B) Risk of developing an autoimmune disease (C) Reduced innate immune response (D) Increased levels of IgE

Parasitic Worms and Allergies

Q.99 A newborn was accidentally given a drug that destroyed the thymus. Which ONE of the following would be the most likely outcome? (A) Lack of class I MHC molecules (B) Inability to rearrange antigen receptors (C) Inability to differentiate to mature T cells (D) Reduction in T-independent number of B cells

Thymus Destruction in Newborn

Q.98 A green fluorescent protein (GFP) encoding gene is fused to a gene encoding specific protein for expression in cells. What is the advantage of using GFP over staining cells with fluorescently labeled antibodies that bind to the target protein? (A) It bleaches less compared to fluorescent probes. (B) It allows imaging at higher resolution than fluorescent probes. (C) It provides more precise location of the protein than fluorescent probes. (D) Its fusion allows tracking the location of the protein in living cells, while staining usually requires fixation of cells.

GFP Fusion vs Antibody Staining

Q.97 A cross is made between a white eyed-miniature winged female with a red eyed-normal winged male of Drosophila melanogaster. Further crossing of F1 female offspring from this cross with a white eyed-miniature winged male fly gave 95 white eyed-normal winged, 102 red eyed-miniature winged, 226 red eyed-normal winged and 202 white eyed-miniature winged offspring in F2 generation. What is the percent frequency of recombination between the two genes? (A) 20.11 (B) 31.52 (C) 49.10 (D) 34.12

Drosophila Recombination Frequency

Q.96 If the recombination frequency between X - Y loci is 12, X - Z loci is 4, and Y - Z loci is 8, then the order of the loci on the chromosome is (A) X-Y-Z (B) Y-X-Z (C) X-Z-Y (D) Z-Y-X

Determining Gene Order from Recombination Frequencies

Q.95 Some endocrine glands produce hormones that stimulate functions of other endocrine glands. Which ONE of the following hormones specifically acts to increase secretion of other hormones? (A) Thyroxine (B) Prolactin (C) ACTH (D) ADH

The Hormone That Triggers

Q.94 In mammals, the two important organs associated with the production and elimination of urea are (A) gastrointestinal tract and lungs (B) gastrointestinal tract and liver (C) kidneys and lungs (D) liver and kidneys

Urea Cycle in Mammals

Q.93 In Graves’ disease, the presence of auto antibodies against which ONE of the following molecules is the direct cause of hyperthyroidism? (A) Thyroperoxidase (B) Thyroxine (C) Thyroid stimulating hormone (D) Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor

Graves’ Disease Autoantibodies

Q.92 Which ONE of the following processes does NOT occur in prokaryotic gene expression, but occurs in eukaryotic gene expression? (A) Transcription of mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA (B) Binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter (C) Addition of a poly-A tail to the 3' end and the 5' capping of an mRNA (D) Translation begins as soon as transcription is initiated

Prokaryotic vs Eukaryotic Gene Expression

Q.91 The TATA box is found in the vicinity of the transcription start site. The role of this box is to (A) serve as a ribosome recruitment site (B) serve as RNA polymerase binding site (C) provide 3-D structural integrity to a DNA molecule (D) act as a terminator sequence

TATA Box Role

Q.90 The end products of glycolysis include ATP, (A) CO2 and H2O (B) H2O and pyruvate (C) NADH and pyruvate (D) CO2 and NADH

Glycolysis End Products

Q.89 The mitochondrion is NOT considered a part of the endomembrane system on account of which ONE of the following reasons? (A) It does not undergo structural changes (B) It is not derived from the ER or Golgi (C) It does not synthesize proteins (D) It is not attached to the outer nuclear envelope

Mitochondrion Endomembrane System

Bilateral Meroblastic Cleavage

Q.87 Which ONE of the following animals has “Osculum” as an excretory structure? (A) Hydra (B) Sponge (C) Jelly Fish (D) Sea pen

Osculum Excretory Structure

Q.86 Small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species and a large number of endangered and threatened species are known as (A) endemic sinks (B) critical communities (C) biodiversity hot spots (D) endemic metapopulations

Biodiversity Hotspots MCQ

Q.85 Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding recA mutants of E. coli? (P) Exhibit much reduced recombination (Q) Do not survive UV irradiation (R) Show no effect on doubling time (S) Exhibit pleiotropy (A) P, Q & R only (B) P, Q & S only (C) P, R & S only (D) Q, R & S only

recA Mutants E. coli

Q.84 Match items in Group I with sterilization methods in Group II. Group I (P) Ampicillin (Q) 1% glucose in phosphate buffer (R) Plastic syringe (S) Luria broth Group II (i) 70% alcohol treatment (ii) Autoclaving at 15 psi for 15 min (iii) Autoclaving at 10 psi for 20 min (iv) Membrane filtration (v) γ-ray irradiation (A) P-iv, Q-iii, R-v, S-ii (B) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-v (C) P-i, Q-ii, R-v, S-iii (D) P-v, Q-ii, R-iii, S-i

Matching of Sterilization Methods

Q.83 Lethal dose curves of different microorganisms (1, 2, 3 and 4) are shown below. Which of these microorganisms are the most lethal? (A) 1 & 3 only (B) 1 & 2 only (C) 3 & 4 only (D) 2 & 3 only

Lethal Dose Curves of Microorganisms

Q.82 Match organisms in Group I with shapes in Group II and flagellar arrangements in Group III. Group I (P) Salmonella typhi (Q) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (R) Aquaspirillum serpens (S) Vibrio cholerae Group II (i) helical (ii) rod (iii) curved rod (iv) ovoid Group III (1) non-motile (2) amphitrichous (3) peritrichous (4) polar (A) P-ii-3, Q-iv-1, R-i-2, S-iii-4 (B) P-iii-1, Q-iv-2, R-ii-4, S-i-3 (C) P-i-2, Q-ii-4, R-iii-2, S-iv-3 (D) P-ii-2, Q-iii-1, R-i-3, S-iv-4

Matching Microorganisms

Q.81 The concentration of sodium chloride in the cytoplasm of a Halobacterium sp. was found to be 250 ng/nl. The molarity (in M) of sodium chloride is __________.

Halobacterium Cytoplasm

Q.80 During a bacterial growth experiment, the total viable cell count at 2 h and 6 h was 1 × 104 cells/ml and 1 × 109 cells/ml, respectively. The specific growth rate (in h−1) of the culture is ____________________.

Calculation of Specific Growth Rate

Q.79 Match the media in Group I for screening microbial isolates in Group II. Group I (P) Blood agar media (Q) Minimal media (R) Skimmed milk agar media (S) Bile salt media Group II (i) Coliforms (ii) Protease producers (iii) Hemolytic microbes (iv) Lipase producers (v) Autotrophs (A) P-iii, Q-v, R-ii, S-i (B) P-iii, Q-ii, R-i, S-iv (C) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv (D) P-ii, Q-i, R-iv, S-v

Screening Microbial Isolates Media Matching

Q.78 The length of a coding region in an mRNA is 897 bases. How many amino acids will be there in the polypeptide synthesized using this mRNA? (A) 297 (B) 298 (C) 299 (D) 897

Genetic Code Calculation Explained

Q.77 Match the organisms with the appropriate growth curves. (P) Bacteria (Q) Extracellular virus (R) Intracellular virus (A) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii (B) P-ii, Q-i, R-iii (C) P-ii, Q-iii, R-i (D) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii

Matching Growth Curves of Bacteria and Viruses

Q.76 Match compounds in Group I with inhibitory activities in Group II. Group I (P) Vancomycin (Q) Rifampin (R) Puromycin (S) Ciprofloxacin Group II (i) Folate metabolism (ii) DNA synthesis (iii) Protein synthesis (iv) RNA synthesis (v) Cell wall synthesis (A) P-v, Q-iv, R-iii, S-ii (B) P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii (C) P-iv, Q-i, R-iii, S-ii (D) P-v, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv

Matching Antibiotics with Their Inhibitory Activities

Q.75 Which one of the following microscopic techniques can be used to study the contour of proteins? (A) SEM (B) TEM (C) AFM (D) Confocal microscopy

AFM Studies Protein Contours

Q.74 Lysozyme catalyzes the breakdown of (A) NAG-NAM (B) lipopolysaccharide (C) teichoic acid (D) lipoprotein A

Lysozyme Catalyzes Breakdown of NAG-NAM

Q.73 The principle of immunization was first explained by (A) Edward Jenner (B) Elie Metchnikoff (C) Louis Pasteur (D) Robert Koch

Edward Jenner Smallpox Vaccine History

Horizontal Gene Transfer

Q.71 Oxygenases that catalyse the initial step in the degradation of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons by using molecular oxygen belong to which enzyme class? (A) Hydrolase (B) Transferase (C) Lyase (D) Oxido-reductase

PAH Degradation Oxygenases

Q.70 Rheumatic fever is an example of (A) autoimmune disease (B) type IV hypersensitive reaction (C) immunodeficiency disease (D) neurodegenerative disorder

Rheumatic Fever as Autoimmune Disease

Q.69 A bacterial culture (5 ×108 cells/ml) is maintained in a chemostat of working volume 10 L. If the doubling time of the bacteria is 50 min, the required rate of flow of nutrients (in ml/min) is _______________.

Chemostat Flow Rate Calculation

Q.68 Which one of the following proteins does NOT bind to a gaseous ligand? (A) Leghemoglobin (B) Carbonic anhydrase (C) Nitrogenase (D) NADPH oxidase

Which Protein Does NOT Bind Gaseous Ligand?

Intergenic Suppression

Viral Capsids

Q.65 Match the definition (Column I) with the type of plant community (Column II) Column I Column II P. The process of occupation of a particular area by different plant communities from their birth to maturity Q. A major ecological unit of vegetation R. A smaller unit of plant association S. A subdivision of plant association which is related to minor differences in temperature and moisture relations 1. Formation 2. Consociation 3. Faciation 4. Plant succession (A)P-1;Q-3;R-4;S-2 (B)P-3;Q-2;R-1;S-4 (C)P-4;Q-1;R-2;S-3 (D)P-2;Q-4;R-3;S-1

Plant Community Classification

Gametophyte Development in Flowering Plants

Q.63 Match the following diagrams P, Q, R, and S with the inflorescence type (Column I) and the corresponding plant species (Column II). P (Diagram P) Q (Diagram Q) R (Diagram R) S (Diagram S) Column I Column II 1. Umbel 2. Raceme 3. Compound determinate 4. Spike i. Pedicularis sp. ii. Smilacina sp. iii. Epilobium sp. iv. Pelargonium sp. (A) P-2-i Q-3-iv R-4-ii S-1-iii (B) P-3-ii Q-2-iii R-4-i S-1-iv (C) P-1-iii Q-3-ii R-4-iv S-2-i (D) P-1-iv Q-4-i R-2-iii S-3-ii

Matching Inflorescence Types

Q.62 Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination. P. Regulation of cell cycle progression depends on cyclin dependent kinase (CDK) and protease activity. Q. In photosynthesis, oxidation of water produces O2 and releases electrons required by photosystem I (PSI). R. Photorespiratory reaction occurring in oxidative photosynthetic carbon (C2) pathway involves a cooperative interaction among three organelles: chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria. S. Ethylene acts as a promoter of senescence and cytokinins act as a senescence antagonist. (A) P-T, Q-F, R-T, S-F (B) P-T, Q-T, R-T, S-F (C) P-T, Q-F, R-F, S-T (D) P-T, Q-F, R-T, S-T

Cell Cycle, Photosynthesis & Senescence

Q.61 Find the CORRECT statements in the context of Global warming effect on plant photosynthesis. P. Decreasing aqueous solubility of dissolved CO2 compared to dissolved O2 Q. Decreasing oxygenase activity of Rubisco relative to carboxylation R. Enhancing the ratio of CO2 to O2 in air equilibrated solution S. Increasing photorespiration relative to photosynthesis (A) P & Q (B) R & S (C) P & R (D) P & S

Global Warming’s Impact on Plant Photosynthesis

Q.60 Match the following reporter genes used in plant transformation experiments with the source of gene and detection/assay system Reporter gene Source of gene Detection/assay P. β-glucuronidase Q. Green fluorescence protein R. Luciferase S. Chloramphenicol acetyl transferase 1. Aequorea victoria 2. Photinus pyralis 3. E. coli i. Radioactive assay ii. Fluorimetric iii. Fluorescence iv. Luminescence (A) P-3-i, Q-1-ii, R-2-iii, S-3-iv (B) P-3-ii, Q-1-iii, R-2-iv, S-3-i (C) P-2-ii, Q-1-iii, R-3-iv, S-1-i (D) P-1-ii, Q-2-iii, R-3-i, S-3-iv

Matching Reporter Genes

Q.59 Match the nuclei status of mutant plant (Column-I) with the typical chromosome number (Column-II), when the wild type plant species is having 2N = 46 chromosomes. Column I P. Trisomic Q. Triploid R. Monosomic S. Monoploid Column II 1. 23 2. 45 3. 47 4. 69 (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Nuclei Status vs Chromosome Number

Q.58 Following diagram represents the sequence of genes in a normal chromosome of a plant species: G H I J ○ K L M N Match the CORRECT combination for chromosomal mutation using Column I and Column II. Column I P. G H I K L ○ J M N Q. G J ○ K L H I M N R. G H I J ○ K L K L M N S. G H J ○ K L M N Column II 1. Tandem duplication 2. Deletion 3. Pericentric inversion 4. Non-reciprocal translocation (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Chromosomal Mutation Matching

$Q.57 In a plant species, flower colour purple is dominant over white. One such purple-flowered plant upon selfing produced 35 viable plants, of which 9 were white-flowered and the rest were purple- flowered. What fraction of these purple-flowered progeny is expected to be pure purple-flowered line? (A) 1/2 (B) 1/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 2/3$

Purple Flowered Plant Selfing

Q.56 Select the CORRECT combination from the promoter (Column I), transcription machinery used (Column II) and target tissue type (Column III) to express a foreign gene in a plant system. Column I P. Ubiquitin Q. Napin R. RbcL S. RbcS Column II 1. Chloroplast 2. Nucleus 3. Mitochondria Column III i. Leaf ii. Seed (A) P-1-i, Q-3-ii, R-2-i, S-3-ii (B) P-3-i, Q-1-i, R-2-ii, S-1-ii (C) P-2-i, Q-2-ii, R-1-i, S-2-i (D) P-1-ii, Q-3-i, R-2-ii, S-3-ii

Plant Gene Expression

Q.55 In classical model to explain the plant-pathogen interaction, the host will not develop the disease upon the pathogen attack when (A) The resistance gene (R) is non-functional (B) The avirulence gene (Avr) is non-functional (C) Both R and Avr are non-functional (D) Both R and Avr are functional

Plant-Pathogen Gene

Q.54 The semi-dwarf trait of corn, wheat and rice plants used in breeding program during 1960s resulted in green revolution. Later this ‘green-revolution gene’ has been identified to be involved in either signal transduction pathway or biosynthesis of (A) Auxin (B) Gibberellin (C) Cytokinin (D) Ethylene

Green Revolution Gene

Q.53 Match the following products (Column I) with the corresponding plant species (Column II) Column I Column II P. Saffron 1. Garcinia sp. Q. Gamboge 2. Rocellia tinctoria R. Litmus 3. Crocus sativus S. Turmeric 4. Curcuma sp. (A) P-4 Q-2 R-1 S-3 (B) P-3 Q-4 R-1 S-2 (C) P-2 Q-3 R-2 S-1 (D) P-3 Q-1 R-2 S-4

Match Natural Products with Their Plant Sources

Q.52 In a typical oil-seed crop, the matured seeds are enriched with (A) Phospholipid (B) Galactolipid (C) Neutral lipid (D) Sphingolipid

Oil-Seed Crop Matured Seeds

Q.51 Plantibody is the (A) Antibody expressed in transgenic plant (B) Transgenic plant that expresses antibody (C) Antibody against plant based antigen (D) Transgenic plant that expresses antigen

Plantibody Antibody Expressed Transgenic Plant Definition

Odd One Out

Q.49 Identify the CORRECT answer RNA interference (RNAi) P. is an event of post transcriptional gene silencing Q. works through RNA induced silencing complex (A) P only (B) Q only (C) Both P and Q (D) neither P nor Q

RNA Interference RNAi Post-Transcriptional Gene Silencing RISC

Q.48 Transmission Electron Micrograph of fungal cell can usually be distinguished from plant cell due to lack of P and having less abundant Q. Find the correct combination of P and Q. (A) P- Plastid; Q-Vacuoles (B) P- Plastid; Q-Mitochondria (C) P- Plastid; Q-Endoplasmic reticulum (D) P- Mitochondria; Q-Plastid

TEM Fungal Cell vs Plant Cell

Ideal Cybrid

Q.46 Plant which grows attached to another plant species but is not a parasitic is known as (A) Endophyte (B) Halophyte (C) Epiphyte (D) Lithophyte

Epiphyte: Plant Grows Attached

Q.45 A 7 kb DNA molecule of a specific sequence has two EcoRI and one PvuII restriction endonuclease sites. The restriction sites are shown below. The DNA was completely digested with both EcoRI and PvuII. The digestion product was purified and added to an appropriately buffered reaction mixture at 37 °C, which contained the Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase I and α-32P dNTPs. After one hour, the DNA in the reaction product was purified and analyzed by electrophoresis. The bands were visualized by both ethidium bromide (EtBr) staining and autoradiography. The result is shown below. Which one of the following restriction maps is in agreement with the above result?

Restriction Mapping of DNA

Q.44 Using the Sanger’s dideoxy chain termination method, a particular exonic region of a protein coding gene was sequenced for two individuals referred to as Subject 1 and Subject 2. The figure below shows a segment of the autoradiogram corresponding to a small window of the DNA sequence. Which one of the following interpretations is correct for the sequenced DNA fragments? (A) Subject 2 has two allelic variants. (B) Subject 1 has the sequence 5’- TAGTCGGA -3’. (C) Subject 2 has the sequence 5’- AGGCTAGAT -3’. (D) Subject 1 has a single nucleotide deletion in the gene.

Interpretation of Sanger Sequencing Autoradiogram

Q.43 A human gene has only three exons (I, II and III in the given order). Total RNA was isolated from cultured human kidney cells and reverse transcribed. The resultant cDNA was used as a template in a PCR reaction containing a forward primer specific to Exon I and a reverse primer specific to Exon III. When the PCR product was analyzed by gel electrophoresis, two bands were observed of sizes 2.5 kb and 1 kb. However, when Northern blotting was performed with the same total RNA using a radiolabeled probe specific to Exon II, only one band was observed. Based on these observations, which one of the following statements is FALSE ? (A) Northern blotting with a probe specific to Exon III will show two bands. (B) The gene codes for two mRNA splice variants. (C) If the forward primer were specific to Exon II, two bands will be observed. (D) The Exon II is 1.5 kb in size.

Human Gene Three Exons PCR

Q.42 Shown below is an electrospray ionization mass spectrum of a protein: The numbers written on top of the peaks are the m/z values. The mass of the protein deduced from the given data is ___________ kDa.

Protein Mass Determination

Q.41 One litre of phosphate buffer was prepared by adding 208 grams of Na2HPO4 (Mol. wt. 142) and 71 grams of NaH2PO4 (Mol. wt. 120) in water. If the pKa for the dissociation of H2PO4− into HPO42− and H+ is 6.86, the pH of the buffer will be __________.

How to Calculate the pH

Q.40 The kinetic data for a single substrate enzyme is shown below. The concentration of inhibitor [I] used in the reaction was equal to the Ki of the inhibitor. The Km value of an uninhibited reaction is 2 × 10−5 M. In the presence of the inhibitor, the observed Km value is ________ × 10−5 M.

Effect of Competitive Inhibition

Q.39 Match the entries in Group I with those in Group II Group I P) J chain Q) Serpin R) β2-microglobulin S) Artemis Group II 1) VDJ recombinase complex 2) Component of MHC class I 3) B cell co-receptor complex 4) C1 complement inhibitor 5) Component of MHC class II 6) Multimerization of IgA and IgM (A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (B) P-6, Q-5, R-2, S-3 (C) P-6, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-6

J Chain, Serpin, β2-Microglobulin, Artemis Matching

Q.38 The concentration of Mg2+ ions outside a cell is twice the concentration inside. If the transmembrane potential of the cell is −60 mV (inside negative), the free energy change of transporting Mg2+ ions across the membrane against the concentration gradient at 37 °C is ________ kJ/mol. Faraday constant: 96.5 kJ V−1 mol−1

Free Energy Change of Mg²⁺ Transport

Q.37 A purified oligomeric protein was analyzed by SDS-PAGE under reducing and non-reducing conditions. A one litre solution of 1 mg/ml concentration has 4.01 × 1018 molecules of the oligomeric protein. Based on the data shown below, deduce the total number of polypeptide chains that constitute this protein. (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 12

Determining the Number of Polypeptide Chains

Q.36 An aqueous solution contains two compounds X and Y. This solution gave absorbance values of 1.0 and 0.4 at 220 and 280 nm, respectively, in a 1 cm path length cell. Molar absorption coefficients (ε) of the compounds X and Y are as shown in the table below. Compound ε220 (M−1 cm−1) ε280 (M−1 cm−1) Compound X 1000 200 Compound Y 800 400 The concentration of Y in the solution is ________ mM.

Determining Concentration Using Beer–Lambert Law

Q.35 Given below is the hydropathy plot of a monomeric transmembrane protein. How many transmembrane α-helices are present in the protein? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D)5

Hydropathy Plot of a Transmembrane Protein

Q.34 Consider the following biochemical reaction: Fructose 6-phosphate + ATP Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate + ADP The equilibrium constant under biochemical standard conditions (K'eq) for the above reaction is 254. The standard free energy change (∆G'°) for the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate is _______ kJ/mol.

Fructose 6-Phosphate to Fructose

Q.33 For a single substrate enzyme, a reaction is carried out at a substrate concentration four times the value of Km. The observed initial velocity will be _________ % of Vmax.

Enzyme Kinetics [S]=4Km

Q.32 Which one of the following molecules is an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase-1? (A) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (B) Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate (C) Glucose 6-phosphate (D) Citrate

Phosphofructokinase-1 Allosteric Activator

Q.31 The affinity of an antibody can be determined quantitatively by (A) MALDI-TOF MS (B) isoelectric focusing (C) SDS-PAGE (D) equilibrium dialysis

Antibody Affinity Quantitative Determination

Q.30 Choose the option with two reducing sugars. (A) Lactose and Maltose (B) Trehalose and Sucrose (C) Maltose and Trehalose (D) Lactose and Sucrose

Two Reducing Sugars Options

Q.29 The receptor for epinephrine is a (A) Tyrosine kinase receptor (B) Serine-threonine kinase receptor (C) G-protein-coupled receptor (D) Ligand activated transcription factor

Epinephrine Receptor Type

Q.28 Which one of the following proteases does NOT cleave on the carboxyl side of any Arginine residue in a protein? (A) Trypsin (B) Proteinase K (C) Thrombin (D) Chymotrypsin

Proteases Cleavage Specificity

$Q.27 A mixture of Arginine, Phenylalanine and Histidine was fractionated using cation exchange chromatography at neutral pH. The amino acids were eluted with an increasing salt gradient. Identify the correct order of elution. (A) Arginine, Histidine, Phenylalanine (B) Phenylalanine, Histidine, Arginine (C) Histidine, Phenylalanine, Arginine (D) Arginine, Phenylalanine, Histidine$