Category: CUET PG Biochemistry 2023 Previous Year Question Shift-1 Papers PDF with Solutions

Category: CUET PG Biochemistry 2023 Previous Year Question Shift-1 Papers PDF with Solutions

CUET PG Biochemistry 2023 Previous Year Question Shift-1 Papers PDF with Solutions

Q.75 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. The amino acids with maximum number of codon B. The characteristic amino acid in lysozyme active site C. The amino acid precursor in heme biosynthesis D. The amino acid contributing the most protein absorbance at 280 nm I. Trp II. Ser III. Glu IV. Gly Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Amino Acids Codons

Q.74 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Sucrose B. Lactose C. Trehalose D. Maltose I. The dimer derived from the hydrolysis of starch and glycogen II. A major circulatory sugar in insects: used for energy III. A major animal energy source IV. A product of photosynthesis Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Disaccharide Matching

Q.73 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Angiotensin – II B. Dopamine C. Serotonin D. Endorphin I. Control of body temperature II. Emotional response III. Stimulates thirst IV. Induces sleep Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Angiotensin-II Dopamine Serotonin Endorphin Functions Matching

Q.72 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Actin B. Myosin C. Tropomyosin D. Troponin I. Binds along the thin filaments II. Binds along the length of thin filaments III. Component of thick filament IV. Component of thin filament Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Actin Myosin Tropomyosin Troponin Muscle Filaments Matching

Q.71 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Puromycin B. Kanamycin C. Erythromycin D. Streptomycin I. 50S ribosome II. ‘A’ site of ribosome III. 16S rRNA IV. 23S rRNA Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Puromycin A Site Kanamycin

Q.70 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM I. Pentamer II. Crosses Placenta III. Basophils IV. Secretory component Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Antibody Matching

Q.69 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Maple Syrup Urine Disease B. Phenylketonuria C. Leucine D. Valine I. Phenylalanine hydroxylase II. Essential amino acid III. Branched chain α-keto acid dehydrogenase complex IV. Ketogenic amino acid Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Maple Syrup Urine Disease Phenylketonuria Leucine Valine Matching

Q.68 The termination of transcription process in prokaryotes is carried out by: A. Rho (ρ) independent mechanism B. Ubiquitin pathway C. Rho (ρ) dependent mechanism D. Dicer Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B and D only C and B only A and C only B and D only

Prokaryotic Transcription Termination

Q.67 Which of the following are types of electrophoresis? A. Competitive B. Pulsed-field gel C. Indirect D. 2-Dimensional Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C, D B, D only A, C, D only B, C, D only

Types of Electrophoresis

Q.66 Which of the following are types of ELISA? A. Competitive B. Discontinous C. Indirect D. Sandwich Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C, D A, B, C only A, D only A, C, D only

Types of ELISA

Q.65 The following are important steps in plant tissue culture technique, which is used to multiply transgenic plants. A. Acclimatization of hardened plants B. Spray of insecticide C. Surface sterilization of explant D. Inoculation of explant on culture medium Choose the correct answer from the options given below: C, D, A only B, C, D only D, B, A only C, A, B only

Plant Tissue Culture Steps

Q.64 Choose the correct statements from those given below: A. C5 convertase is formed from C5a and C5b convertase B. C5 convertase is formed from C3b and C3 convertase C. C3a and C3b are formed by C5 convertase D. The membrane attack complex consist of C5b, C6, C7, C8 and C9 E. C5 convertase is formed from C5ab Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B and E only C and B only A and C only B and D only

C5 Convertase Formation Membrane Attack Complex

Q.63 Choose the correct statements: A. Eukaryotes store energy as triacylglycerols in adipocytes. B. Transfer of phosphatidylethanolamine (PE) to the outer surface of a cell is a signal for programmed cell death. C. Integral membrane proteins are attached firmly with the lipid bilayer and can be removed by using detergents. D. GPI anchored proteins preferentially are localized in the lipid rafts. E. Plasma membrane of humans is rich in cardiolipin. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C, D only A, C, D only A, B, C, D, E A, C, E only

 Integral Membrane Proteins, GPI Anchored Proteins, and Lipid Bilayer

Q.62 Choose the correct statements from those given below: A. A balanced diet contains carbohydrates, proteins, fats, minerals, vitamin and some dietary fibre. B. Deficiency of Vitamin E leads to pellagra. C. Nutraceuticals are the substances present in food that can have specific pharmacological properties. D. Patients suffering from phenylketonuria are advised to limit the consumption of phenylalanine in their diet. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C, D B, C only A, C, D only A, B, C only

Phenylketonuria Diet Guide

Q.61 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Hormones act through specific high affmity cellular receptors. Statement II: Steroid hormones pass through the plasma membrane of their target cells and bind to their receptors in the nucleus. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is tme

Steroid Hormones Pass Through Plasma Membrane

Q.60 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Atherosclerosis can be caused due to HDL-cholesterol accumulation. Statement II: Statins inhibit cholesterol biosynthesis. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Atherosclerosis HDL Myth Busted

Q.59 Given below are two statements: Statement I:Cancer cells have to rely on glycolysis for their energy requirements. Statement II: 2-deoxyglucose has shown potential as a chemotherapeutic agent. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Cancer Glycolysis Warburg Effect

Q.58 Given below are two statements: Statement I: In transgenic plants developed by prokaryotic expression systems, the expression of transgene is very high. Statement II: Eukaryotic protein expression system is of limited use as the expression is very low in transgenic organisms. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Transgenic Plants Expression

Q.57 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Vegetarians are more prone towards iron-deficiency anaemia. Statement II: Vegetarian foods typically contain certain substances which inhibit iron absorption in the body. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Vegetarian Iron Deficiency Anemia

Q.56 Given below are two statements: Statement I: A pregnant woman has a higher requirement of folic acid. Statement II: Folic acid regulates glucose levels in the growing fetus and maintains carbohydrate metabolism. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Folic Acid Pregnancy Requirements

Q.55 Given below are two statements: Statement I: "The chemiosmotic model suggests that the energy stored in elctrochemical gradient due to difference in proton concentration and the separation of charge across the inner mitochondrial membrane - drives the synthesis of ATP as protons move passively back into the matrix through a pore in ATP synthase." Statement II: Inhibition of electron movement to oxygen will block ATP synthesis. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Chemiosmotic Model and Inhibition of Electron Transport

Q.54 Arrange the following events responsible for colon cancer in the correct order in which they occur. A. The benign adenoma progresses to a malignant adenoma. B. A single mutated cell starts to proliferate abnormally, giving rise to a proliferative cell population. C. The cancer cells invade the underlying connective tissue and penetrate the blood and lymphatic vessels, thereby spreading throughout the body. D. Additional mutations follow, leading to subsequent formation of an adenoma. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. B, D, A, C 2. B, D, C, A 3. C, A, D, B 4. B, A, D, C

Colon Cancer Progression

Q.53 Arrange the following in increasing order of their diameter: A. HDL B. VLDL C. Chylomicron D. LDL Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A, D, B, C 2. D, A, C, B 3. A, B, C, D 4. A, B, D, C

Lipoprotein Diameter Order

Q.52 Arrange the following in the increasing order in which they are excreted in a normal healthy individual A. Urea B. Glucose C. Sodium D. Water Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. D, A, C, B 2. B, C, D,A 3. B, C, A, D 4. B, A, C, D

Kidney Excretion Order

Q.51 Write the correct sequence of intermediates formed during Pentose Phosphate pathway. A. 6-phosphogluconate B. Ribose-5-phosphate C. Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate D. Glucose-6-phosphate E. Ribulose-5-phosphate Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. B, C, D, E, A 2. A, D, B, E, C 3. A, B, C, D, E 4. D, A, B, E, C

Pentose Phosphate Pathway Intermediates Sequence

Q.50 Arrange the enzymes in sequence on the basis of their involvement in citrie acid cycle. A. Aconitase B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase C. Fumarase D. Malate-dehydrogenase E. Succinate dehydrogenase Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A. B, C, D, E 2. E, D, C, A, B 3. A, B, E, C, D 4. D. C, B. A, E

Citric Acid Cycle Enzymes Sequence

Q.49 Proteins destined to be secreted, move through the secretory pathway in which of the following order A. Cell surface B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum C. Secretary vesicle D. Transport vesicle E. Golgi complex Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A, B, C, D, E 2. A, B, D, C, E 3. E, B, C, D, A 4. B, D, E, C, A

Protein Secretory Pathway Order

Q.48 Arrange the following events occuring in a JAK/STAT signaling pathway in the correct sequence: A. Phosphorylation of Tyr residues on receptor by JAK B. Binding of ligand to receptor C. Dimerisation of receptor D. Binding of STAT to phosphorylated Tyr and phosphorylation of STAT by JAK E. Dimerisation of phosphorylated STAT followed by translocation of STAT dimer to nucleus to modulate gene-expression. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. C, B, A, D, E 2. B, C, A, D, E 3. B, A, C, E, D 4. A, B, C, D, E

JAK-STAT Pathway Sequence

Q.47 Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Plants raised in-vitro, through tissue culture technique often exhibit morphological and genetic variations. Reason R: Plant genetic fidelity often gets impacted by somaclonal variations. In the light of above, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3. A is true but R is false 4. A is false but R is true

Somaclonal Variation in Plant Tissue Culture

Q.46 Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: In yeast, a single Cdk (Cyclin dependent Kinases) viz. Cdk1 controls the cell cycle progression. Reason R: In mammalian cells, minimum two or in special situation more than two Cdks control the cell progression. In the light of above, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3. A is true but R is false 4. A is false but R is true

Yeast Cdk1 Cell Cycle A

Q.45 Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The number of Adenine bases in a DNA molecule is always equal to Thymine bases. Reason R: As per Chargaff's principle, in a given DNA molecule the proportion of purines and pyrimidines is always equal. In the light of above, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3. A is true but R is false 4. A is false but R is true

Chargaff’s Rules in DNA

Q.44 Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Enzyme sucrase will not bind and act on other disaccharides such as maltose. Reason R: Due to enzyme specific functionality enzyme sucrase act only on sucrose. In the light of above, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A 3. A is true but R is false 4. A is false but R is true

Sucrase Specificity

Q.43 Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Nerve impulses are communicated across synapses by small, diffusible molecules called neurotransmitters. Acetylcholine receptor is best understood ligand-gated channel. Acetylcholine opens a single kind of cation channel called acetylcholine receptor, which is almost equally permeable to Na+ and K+. Reason R: P-type ATPases, which include the sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+-ATPase and Na+-K+ ATPase, are integral membrane proteins with conserved structures and catalytic mechanisms. In the light of above, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A Both A and R true but R is not the correct explanation of A A is true but R is false A is false but R is true

Nerve Impulses and Synapses

Q.42 Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Subtrates are bound to enzymes by multiple weak attraction. The noncovalent interaction in ES complex are much weaker than covalent bond, which have energies between - 210 and - 460 kj mol-1. Reason R: The mechanism of catalysis is dynamic, involving structural changes with multiple intermediates of both reactants and enzymes. In the light of above, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R correct but R is not the correct explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is incorrect 4. A is correct but R is incorrect

Enzyme-Substrate Binding

Q.41 Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The second law of thermodynamics states that the total entropy of a system plus that of its surroundings always increases. Reason R: The release of water from nonpolar surfaces responsible for the hydrophobic effect is favourable because water molecules free in solution are more disordered than they are when they are associated with nonpolar surfaces. In the light of above, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R correct but R is not the correct explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is incorrect 4. A is correct but R is incorrect

Second Law Thermodynamics

Q.40 In nucleosome model, the dsDNA is wound on which molecular structure to give organisation to DNA into chromatin 1. H1 molecule 2. Histone protein Octamer 3. Nuclear membrane 4. Lysosomes

Nucleosome Model

Q.39 The commonly used antibiotic "Erythromycin" is produced by: 1. Bacillus licheniformis 2. Streptomyces erythreus 3. Pencillium chrysogenum 4. Streptomyces antibioticus

Erythromycin Antibiotic Producer

Q.38 In Sanger's DNA sequencing, for chain termination of replication 1. 5' - methylcytosine 2. 2', 3' -dideoxy analog 3. 2', 3' - deoxy analog 4. 2', 3' - cyclic cAMP

Sanger Sequencing Chain Termination

Q.37 During cell division protein degradation (proteolysis) is facilitated by: 1. Amino acyl synthetase pathway 2. Restriction endonuclease pathway 3. ATPase pathway 4. Ubiquitin pathway

Cell Division Proteolysis

Q.36 The following chemical compound is used in gene transfer using physical delivery methods: 1. Paradichlorobenzene 2. Polyethylene glycol 3. Chloramphenicol 4. Colchicine

Gene Transfer Biocatalyst

Q.35 In Ramachandran Plot, the angle of rotation lies between: -120° to +180° -180° to +180° -90° to +90° -180° to +120°

Ramachandran Plot Angle Range

Q.34 Identify the biocatalyst among the given four examples: 1. Lysosome 2. Ribozyme 3. Chromosome 4. Golgi Vesicle

Biocatalyst Identification

Q.33 The protein synthesis process in prokaryotes is unique because, in them: 1. Transeription is not followed by Translation 2. Translation is followed by Transcription 3. Transcription is coupled with translation 4. Either transcription or translation - only one process takes place

Prokaryotic Protein Synthesis

Q.32 One of the major drawback of transgenic plants/crops is 1. They are often observed to be less productive 2. They are more prone for diseases 3. They may indulge in unwanted horizontal spread of transgene 4. They often produce poor quality of seeds

Major Drawback of Transgenic Plants

Q.31 In E.coli lac operon, the lac repressor binds to the operator region __________ in the absence of lactose. Very weakly Very strongly Not binds None of the above

E. coli Lac Operon Explained

Q.30 Inspiratory Capacity (IC) can be calculated as Tidal Volume (TV) + Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) Tidal Volume (TV) + Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) Tidal Volume (TV) − Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) − Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

 Inspiratory Capacity Calculation

Q.29 In the pump Na+ - K+ ATPase during active transport, hydrolysis of ATP provides energy for: 4 mole of Na+ out of cell and 4 mole of K+ into cell 1 mole of Na+ out of cell and 1 mole of K+ into cell 3 mole of Na+ out of cell and 2 mole of K+ into cell 2 mole of Na+ into the cell and 3 mole of K+ out of cell

Na+ K+ ATPase Pump

Q.28 The drug sildenafil (Viagra) works by: 1. Relaxation of smooth muscles and vasodilation by activating geranylyl cyclase 2. Contraction of smooth muscles and vasodilation by activating adenylyl cyclase 3. Relaxation of smooth muscles and vasodilation by inhibiting cGMP phosphodiesterase 4. Contraction of smooth muscles and vasoconstriction by activating cGN'1P phosphodiesterase

Sildenafil Viagra Mechanism

Q.27 Synthesis of 2.3-bisphosphoglycerate increases in high altitude because: 1. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate favours the relaxed state of haemogobin 2. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate serves as an energy source at high altitudes 3. 2.3-bisphosphoglycerate stabilizes the T-conformation of haemoglobin. thereby decreasing the oxygen affinity of haemoglobin. making it more available to the peripheral tissues. 4. 2.3-bisphosphoglycerate regulates body temperature

Why 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate Increases at High Altitude

Q.26 Molarity is defined as No. of moles of solute in 1 liter of solution No. of moles of solute in 1 kg of solvent No. of moles of solvent in 1 kg of solute No. of moles of salt in 1 liter of solvent

Molarity Definition

Q.25 Proteins can be separated electrophoretically on the basis of net acidic and basic charge tlu•ough 1. Isoelectric focusing 2. Differential centrifugation 3. Countercurrent Immunoelectrophoresis 4. Pulse field gel electrophoresis

Proteins Electrophoretic Separation

Q.24 Which compound in red cells is ctucial in determining the oxygen affinity of haemoglobin ? 1. Inositol triphosphate 2. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 3.2, 3- Bisphosphoglycerate 4. Phosphatidyl inositol

Hemoglobin Oxygen Affinity Red Cells

Q.23 Another name for cardio lipin is 1. Phosphatidyl choline 2. Phosphatidyl serine 3. Phosphatidyl inositol 4. Diphosphatidyl glycerol

Cardiolipin Another Name

Q.22 Which ofthe following organelle is pelleted first during sub-cellular fractionation by differential centrifugation at 1000 g for 10 minutes 1. Nuclei 2. Mitochondria 3. Lysosome 4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Organelle Pelleted First 1000g Differential Centrifugation

Q.21 Mass-to-Charge or niz ratio can be measured through 1. Gas chromatography 2. I-TV-vis spectrophotometer 3. Fluorescence spectrophotometer 4. Mass spectrophotometer

Mass-to-Charge Ratio Measured by

Q.20 Cyanide is probably the most potent inhibitor of electron transport chain. It binds to: NADH dehydrogenase ATP synthase Succinate dehydrogenase Fe3+ of cytochrome oxidase

Cyanide Electron Transport Chain Binding

Q.19 Which is not a palt of the cytoskeleton? l. Serpm 2. Tubulin 3. Actm 4. Kelatin

Cytoskeleton Proteins

Q.18 The condition fatal infantile mitochondrial myopathy and renal dysfunction involves I. Presence of fumarate 2. Absence of most oxidoreductases of respiratory chain 3. Presence of most oxidoreductases of respiratory chain 4. Absence of succinate

Fatal Infantile Mitochondrial Myopathy

Q.17 Niemann-Pick disease is caused due to a genetic deficiency of β-Galactosidase Ceramidase Sphingomyelinase α-Galactosidase

Niemann-Pick Disease Sphingomyelinase Deficiency

Q.16 A 20 year old boy was advised a liver function test by the doctor upon complaining of pain in the abdominal region and yellowing of nails. Subsequently he was diagnosed of hepatic jaundice. Wllich of the following would you expect in his test repott ? 1. Increased activity of ALT and AST 2. Only increased activity of ALP 3. Only increased activity of AST 4. Only increased activity of ALT

Hepatic Jaundice LFT

Q.15 Creatinine is used to assess the renal glomerular functions because l. Creatinine is easy to estimate 2. The value of creatinine clearance is close to GFR 3. The excretion of creatinine is not constant 4. All of the above

Creatinine Renal Glomerular Function

Q.14 Prostaglandins are synthesized in vivo from the 20-carbon polyunsaturated fatty acid I. Oleic acid 2. Arachidonic acid 3. Cervonic acid 4. Linoleic acid

Prostaglandins Synthesized

Q.13 Which of the following additives need to be added to the blood sample to prepare serum for any clinical analysis? l. Citrate 2. Oxalate 3. EDTA 4. No additives are required

Blood Serum Preparation Additives

Q.12 A person having a BMI of 35 will be categorized as 1. Healthy 2. Grade I obesity/ overweight 3. Grade II Clinical obesity 4. Grade III/Morbid Obesity

BMI 35 Category

Q.11 Cellulose is an unbranched polymer of glucose residues joined by α-1, 4 linkage α-1, 6 linkage β-1, 4 linkage β-1, 6 linkage

Cellulose Unbranched Polymer of Glucose

Q.10 Water can dissolve many organic molecules due to 1. Dipolar character and ability to form hydrogen bond 2. Hydrophilic character and high conductance 3. Amphiphilic character and high insultation capacity 4. Hydrophobic character and ability to fonn disulfide bond

Water Dissolves Organic Molecules

Q.9 Which of the following parameter is used to assess the rise in insulin following consumption of any food 1. PDCAAS 2. Nitrogen balance 3. Glycemic Index 4. Glycogen Index

Parameter Used to Assess Rise

Q.8 Biological value of proteins can be defined as – BV = (Nitrogen retained / Nitrogen absorbed) × 100 BV = (Nitrogen retained / Nitrogen ingested) × 100 BV = Nitrogen retained / (Nitrogen absorbed − Nitrogen retained) × 100 BV = (Nitrogen absorbed / Nitrogen ingested) × 100

Biological Value of Proteins Formula

Q.7 Which of the following is the biologically active fomi of vitamin-D that regulates calciam levels in the kidney and bones? l. 7-dehydrocholesterol 2.24, 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol 3. I-a-25- dihydroxycholecalciferol 4. Cholecalciferol

Biologically Active Form

Q.6 Enantiomers are special type of stereoisomers that are: l. isobars of each other 2. isotopes of each other 3. Not the minor image of each other 4. Minor image of each other

 Enantiomers Are Special Type

Q.5 Oxidases act as l. Use oxygen as an electron acceptor but donot incorporate it into the substrate. 2. Directly incorporate oxygen into the substrate 3. Use H2O2 as an electron acceptor 4. Use molecules other than oxygen (eg : NAD¯) as an electron acceptor

Oxidases Act As

Q.4 Which of the following statement is con•ect about enzyme? 1. A bio catalyst that increases the rate of chemical reaction 2. A biocatalyst that inhibit the rate of chemical reaction 3. Non specific in nature 4. All enzymes are proteinacious in nature

orrect Statement About Enzyme

Q.3 Type IV- delayed hypersensitivity is not caused by I. Macrophage 2. Lymphokines 3. Circulating antibodies 4. T- cells

Type IV Delayed Hypersensitivity Not Caused By

Q.2 Diisopropyl phosphofluoridate (DIPF) act as: 1. Inhibitor of enzymes with serine at active site 2. A type of irreversible inhibitor 3. Reduces the synthesis of prostaglandin 4. Mechanism based inhibitor

Diisopropyl Phosphofluoridate

Q.1 Identify the conect statement about Homotropic. 1. For regulatory enzymes substrate and modulator are identical 2. Modulator is a molecule other than substrate 3. Less- active enzyme 4. Active enzyme substrate complex

Homotropic Enzymes

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