Category: CUET PG Life Science 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-2 PDF with Solutions

Category: CUET PG Life Science 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-2 PDF with Solutions

CUET PG Life Science 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-2 PDF with Solutions

Q.75 Match List I with List II : List I (A) Stearic acid (B) Palmitic acid (C) Myristic acid (D) Lauric acid List II (I) n-octadecanoic acid (II) n-dodecanoic acid (III) n-tetradecanoic acid (IV) n-hexadecanoic acid Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Stearic Palmitic Myristic Lauric Acid

Q.74 Match List I with List II : List I (A) Negatively charged amino acid (B) Polar uncharged amino acid (C) Aromatic amino acid (D) Positively charged amino acid List II (I) Histidine (II) Cysteine (III) Aspartate (IV) Phenylalanine Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (3) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Amino Acid Classification

Q.73 Match List I with List II : List I (Phylum) (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Annelida (C) Arthropoda (D) Mollusca List II (Excretary organ) (I) Malpighian tubules (II) Nephridia (III) Flame cells (IV) Feather like gills Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Platyhelminthes Annelida Arthropoda Mollusca Excretory Organs

Q.72 Match List I with List II : List I (A) Marchantia (B) Anthoceros (C) Polytrichum (D) Funaria List II (I) Capsule is polygonal (II) Capsule is pear-shaped, curved and asymmetrical (III) Capsule is bristle or thorn-like (IV) Capsule is oval shaped Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

Marchantia Anthoceros Polytrichum Funaria Capsule

Q.71 Match List I with List II : List I (A) Use of Hypoxanthine and thymidine (B) Characterization of γ-globulin serum proteins (C) Formation of chemiluminescent product (D) Detection and quantification of number of cells producing cytokines List II (I) Immuno precipitation (II) ELISPOT Assays (III) Hybridoma (IV) ELISA Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

ELISA Immunoprecipitation Matching

Q.70 Match List I with List II : List I List II (A) Adeno virus (I) Single stranded RNA virus with 6,000 nucleotide pairs (B) Polio virus (II) Double stranded DNA virus with 35,000 nucleotide pairs (C) Tobacco mosaic virus (III) Double stranded DNA virus with 4,500 nucleotide pairs (D) Polyoma virus (IV) Single stranded RNA virus with 7,500 nucleotide pairs Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

Adenovirus Polio TMV Polyoma Virus

Q.69 Match List I with List II : List I List II (A) Duchenne muscular dystrophy (I) Short stature resulted by addition of chromosome 21 (B) Down syndrome (II) Deletion in chromosome 5 resulted in small head (C) Chronic myelogenous leukemia (III) Loss of coordination due to the absence of gene on X-chromosome (D) Cri du chat (IV) Exchange of a large portion of chromosome 22 with a small fragment from a tip of chromosome 9 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Down Syndrome

Q.68 Choose the vertebrates from the given list. Dog fish Silver fish Anguilla Devil fish Hippocampus Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A, B, D, E only A, B, C, D, E only A, C, D, E only A, B, C, E only

Vertebrates Identification

Q.67 Microbes involved in biological fixation of nitrogen are Nitrosomonas Azobacter Pseudomonas Anabaena Rhizobium Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A, B, C, E only B, D, E only A, B, C, D, E only A, B, D only

Microbes Biological Nitrogen Fixation

Q.66 Following are associated with endocrine functioning of pituitary endocrine gland. Pars convoluta Pars intermedia Pars rodita Pars nervosa Pars distalis Choose the correct answer from the options given below : B, D, E, A only B, D, E only A, B, C, D, E only B, C, D, E only

Pituitary Endocrine Function

Q.65 Sieve-tube elements found in Angiosperms are Sieve tube P-protein present P-protein absent Sieve-plate Companion cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A, B, D, E only A, C, D, E only A, B, C, D, E only A, B, E only

Sieve-Tube Elements in Angiosperms

Q.64 Molecular techniques used for the identification of micro-organisms from environmental samples includes Metagenomics CARD-FISH Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis ELISA Phylochips Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A, C, D only A, D, E only A, C, E only A, B, C only

Molecular Techniques for Microorganism

Q.63 Which protein/s are present in neutrophil? Collagenase Leukotrienes Defensins Cytokines α-1 antitrypsin Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A, B, C only A, B, D, E only A, C, E only B, C, D, E only

Neutrophil Proteins

Q.62 During protein synthesis, termination occurs. Termination signal causing the polymerase to detach from the DNA and release the transcript. In eukaryotes polymerase-II transcribes a sequence AAGUAC. Termination signal causing the polymerase to undetach from the DNA. Termination signal causing the polymerase to detach from the RNA and release the transcript. In eukaryotes polymerase-II transcribes a sequence AUGAAA. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A, B only A, C, D only A only A, B only

Protein Synthesis Termination

Q.61 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Auxins have been used commercially for prevention of fruit and leaf drop only. Statement II : In some plant species, seedless fruit are produced with the help of treatment of unpollinated flower with auxins. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Auxins Commercial Use

Q.60 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Chlorophylls ‘a’ and ‘b’ are abundant in green plants and ‘c’, ‘d’ are found in some protists and cyanobacteria. Statement II : Carotenoids are found in all photosynthetic organisms and are integral constituent of thylakoid membrane. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Chlorophylls a and b in Green Plants, c and d in Protists

Q.59 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Ion exchange chromatography exploits differences in the sign and magnitude of the net electric charge of proteins at a given pH. Statement II : In ion exchange chromatography, separation can be optimized by gradually changing the pH and/or salt concentrations of the mobile phase to create a pH or salt gradient. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

 Ion Exchange Chromatography

Q.58 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Prions are not inactivated by temperature up to 90°C. Statement II : Prion infection is sensitive to radiation treatment. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Prions Not Inactivated by 90°C Heat

Q.57 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Glycolysis involves a series of reactions carried out by group of soluble enzymes located in both cytosol and plastid. Statement II : Pentose phosphate pathway is also located both in cytosol and plastid. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Glycolysis Location Cytosol Plastid

Q.56 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Many species of biennials and perennials are induced to flower by low temperature exposure (0°C to 5°C) and the process is called vernalization. Statement II : Vernalization elongates the vegetative period and induces the plant to flower earlier. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Vernalization Statements Analysis

Q.55 Given below are two statements : Statement I : In total, only about 1.5% of human DNA is coding or exon DNA, carrying information for proteins or RNA products. However, when the much larger introns are included in the count, as much as 30% of the human genome consists of genes. Statement II : DNA helicase is the enzyme that increases or decreases the extent of DNA underwinding and affects the linking number. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Human DNA Coding Percentage and DNA Helicase Function

Q.54 Gene expression can not be analyzed using this technique (1) DNA fingerprinting (2) Fluorescence in situ hybridization (3) RT-PCR (4) DNA microarray

Phage T4 Lytic Cycle Steps

Q.53 Plasmids are circular DNA. Naturally occurring bacterial plasmids range in size from (1) 5,000 to 4,00,000 bp (2) 50,000 to 4,00,000 bp (3) 50,000 to 4,00,000 bp (4) 5,000 to 4,00,000 bp

PCR Steps Sequence

Q.52 The completed sequence of the human genome was published in (1)2020 (2)2003 (3)2006 (4) 2010

Vertebrae in Human Vertebral Column

Q.51 The correct sequence of intermediates formed in Calvin cycle is A. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate B. 3-phosphoglycerate C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate D. Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate E. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) C, A, E, D, B (2) D, B, A, C, E (3) E, B, D, C, A (4) A, B, C, D, E

Calvin Cycle Intermediates Sequence

Q.50 The correct sequence of the Southern blotting procedure, as applied to DNA fingerprinting is A. Incubation of nylon membrane with radiolabelled DNA probe. B. Separation of digested DNA fragments by agarose gel electrophoresis. C. Denaturation of separated DNA and transfer to nylon membrane. D. Exposure of X-ray film to membrane for analysis of results. E. Digestion of chromosomal DNA with restriction endonucleases. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) E, D, C, B, A (2) E, B, C, A, D (3) A, B, C, D, E (4) A, C, B, E, D

Southern Blotting Procedure Sequence

Q.49 Identify the correct sequence of protein components of mitochondrial electron transfer chain. A. Succinate dehydrogenase B. Cytochrome oxidase C. NADH dehydrogenase D. Ubiquinone–Cytochrome C oxidoreductase Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A, B, C, D (2) D, C, B, A (3) C, D, A, B (4) C, A, D, B

Mitochondrial Electron Transport Chain Sequence

Q.48 Identify the correct sequence of genome of different organisms in increasing order A.Homo sapians B.Escherichia coli C.Drosophila melanogaster D.Saccharomyces cerevisiae E.Caenorhabditis elegans Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) A, B, C, D, E (2) B, C, D, E, A (3) B, D, E, C, A (4) E, D, C, B, A

Genome Size Sequence Organisms

Q.47 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) :Phytochrome is most abundant in etiolated seedlings. Reasons (R) :Most biochemical studies have been carried out on phytochrome purified from non green tissues. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (3)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Phytochrome Etiolated Seedlings

Q.46 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) :A hormone is a molecule that is released in one part of the body but regulates the activity of cells in other parts of the body. Reasons (R) :The circulating blood delivers hormones to cells throughout the body. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (3)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Hormone Definition and Blood Transport

Q.45 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) :In a healthy body RBCs can live for several months or years. Reasons (R) :RBCs are responsible for transportation of oxygen and some amount of carbon dioxide also. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (3)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

RBC Lifespan Assertion Reason

Q.44 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) :The thylakoid reactions of photosynthesis take place in the specialized internal membranes of chloroplast called thylacoids. Reasons (R) :The end products of these thylakoid reactions are used for the synthesis of sugars in the carbon fixation reactions. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (3)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Thylakoid Reactions in Photosynthesis

Q.43 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) :Specific amino acids may be replaced individually by site directed mutagenesis. This powerful approach to studying protein structure and function changes the amino acid sequence of a protein by altering the DNA sequence of cloned gene. Reasons (R) :When suitably located restriction site A are not present in the sequence to be altered, an approach called oligonucleotide- directed mutagenesis can create a specific DNA sequence change. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (3)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Site Directed Mutagenesis Assertion Reason

Q.42 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) :In preparatory phase of glycolysis phosphorylation of glucose takes place and converts into glyaraldehyde-3-phosphate. Hexokinase like many other kinases requires Mg" for activity. Reasons (R) :In payoff phase of glycolysis, under aerobic condition two molecules of NADH are formed in cytosol along with two molecules of pyruvate and two molecules of ATP. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (3)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

 Glycolysis Preparatory Phase Assertion Reason

Q.41 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) :Telomeres are unique structures at the ends of linear chromosomes. Telomeres are replicated by telomerase a specialized polymerase that carries its own RNA template. Reasons (R) :In lagging strand in prokaryotes, first an RNA primer is synthesized by primase, like leading strand synthesis, DNA polymerase III binds to RNA primer and adds deoxy ribonucleotides. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : (1)Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2)Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A) (3)(A) is correct but (R) is not correct (4)(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

 Telomeres Replicated by Telomerase

Q.40 Water from digested food is absorbed from (1) Ileum (2) Large intestine (3) Duodenum (4) Stomach

Water Absorption from Digested Food

Q.39 Cataract of human eye defect refers to (1) Shrinkage of eye lens (2) Wrinkling of eye lens (3) Denaturation of protein in eye lens (4) Denaturation of crystalline protein of eye lens

Cataract Human Eye Defect

Q.38 Nerve impulse in a neuron travels in (1) One direction (2) Two directions (3) Multidirections (4) From cyton to axon

Nerve Impulse Neuron Travel Direction

Q.37 Hormones are released in (1) Lumen of endocrine gland (2) Blood (3) Outside the endocrine gland (4) Blood cells

Hormones Released in Blood

Q.36 Scaly anteaters are included under (1) Eutheria (2) Prototheria (3) Metatheria (4) Insectivora

 Scaly Anteaters Classification

Q.35 Protochordates are included under chordates by the presence of (1) Nerve chord (2) Notochord (3) Nerves (4) Vertebral column

 Protochordates Included Under Chordates

Q.34 Turpentine which is an oleo–resin is obtained from (1) Pinus (2) Abies (3) Ginkgo (4) Cycas

 Turpentine Oleo-Resin Obtained

Q.33 Vascular bundles in monocot plants are (1) Arranged in rings (2) Arranged in steler region (3) Scattered in steler region (4) Closed and scattered in steler region

Vascular Bundles in Monocot Plants

Q.32 Which of the following plant has rhizophore? (1) Marsilea (2) Selaginella (3) Equisetum (4) Rhynia

Which Plant Has Rhizophore?

Q.31 Which of the following phase(s) in bryophytes is/are found freely in nature (1)Gametophytic phase (2)Sporophytic phase (3)Saprophytic phase (4)Gametophytic and sporophytic phase

Found Freely in Nature

Q.30 The most efficient and widely used methods for transforming animal cells rely on (1) BAC (2) Liposomes or viral vectors (3) Plasmids (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

 Animal Cell Transformation

Q.29 Gene expression can not be analyzed using this technique (1) DNA fingerprinting (2) Fluorescence in situ hybridization (3) RT-PCR (4) DNA microarray

Gene Expression Cannot Be Analyzed

Q.28 Plasmids are circular DNA. Naturally occurring bacterial plasmids range in size from (1) 5,000 to 4,00,000 bp (2) 50,000 to 4,00,000 bp (3) 50,000 to 4,00,000 bp (4) 5,000 to 4,00,000 bp

Bacterial Plasmids Size Range

Q.27 The completed sequence of the human genome was published in (1) 2020 (2) 2003 (3) 2006 (4) 2010

Human Genome Completed Sequence Published

Q.26 When the bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens comes in contact with damaged plant cell, the segment of Ti plasmid called T-DNA is transferred from plasmid and integrated at a random position in one of the plant cell chromosomes. The size of T-DNA is (1) 80,000 bp (2) 40,000 bp (3) 23,000 bp (4) 50,000 bp

 T-DNA Size in Agrobacterium tumefaciens Ti Plasmid

Q.25 In most higher eukaryotes, the fatty acid synthesis occurs in cytosol, but in plants it occurs in (1) Cytosol (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast

Fatty Acid Synthesis Plants

Q.24 Which is not the type of positively charged amino acid? (1) Arginine (2) Histidine (3) Asparagine (4) Lysine

 Not Positively Charged Amino Acid

Q.23 In the enzyme ATP synthase Fo domain is sensitive to (1) Oligophycin (2) Oligosaccharide (3) Oligomycin (4) Oligonucleotide

ATP Synthase Fo Domain Sensitive

Q.22 Porins are proteins found in gram-negative bacteria such as E. coli and allow ______ to cross the outer membrane. (1) Amphipathic solutes (2) Hydrophobic solutes (3) Nonpolar solutes (4) Polar solutes

Porins Gram-Negative Bacteria

Q.21 The most stable structure for a random-sequence DNA molecule under physiological conditions is (1) C form of DNA (2) A form of DNA (3) Z form of DNA (4) B form of DNA

Most Stable DNA Structure Random Sequence

Q.20 In general, a carbohydrate molecule with n chiral centre can have (1) 2n + 2 stereoisomers (2) n−2 stereoisomers (3) 2n − 2 stereoisomers (4) 2n stereoisomers

Carbohydrate Stereoisomers

Q.19 Eukaryotes have two major chromatin proteins in SMC family They are (1)Integrin and laminin (2)Cohesins and condensin (3)Hemoglobin and myoglobin (4)Actin and myosin

 Eukaryotes Two Major Chromatin Proteins

Q.18 DNA binding proteins associated with bacterial chromosomes are :- (1) HD and H5 (2) HU and H1 (3) HU and H6 (4) HZ and H1

Bacterial Chromosome DNA Binding Proteins

Q.17 Telomeres end with multiple repeated sequences of the pattern (1) (5') (Tn Gy)n (3') (Ax Cy)n (2) (5') (Ux Gy)n (3') (An Cy)n (3) (5') (In Gy)n (3') (An Cy)n (4) (5') (In Gy)n (3') (Ux Cy)n

Telomeres End Multiple Repeated Sequences

Q.16 Small circular DNAs such as plasmids and small viral DNAs when have no breaks in either strand are referred as (1)Nucleosome (2)Close circular DNA (3)Nicked DNA (4)Chromatid

Small Circular DNAs Plasmids

Q.15 In DNA microarray techniques consist of (1)large number of ds DNA (2)large number of ss DNA (3) small number of ss DNA (4)large number of ds DNA

DNA Microarray Techniques Consist

Q.14 How many number of autosomal linkage groups have human somatic cells? (1)23 (2) 22 (3)24 (4) 1

Autosomal Linkage Groups

Q.13 Two highly inbred strains of mice, one with black fur and the other with gray fur were crossed, and all of the F1 offsprings had black fur. Predict the phenotypic outcome of intercrossing the F1 offsprings. (1) All have black fur (2) All have Gray fur (3)2 black fur: 2 Gray fur (4) 3 black fur: 1 Gray fur

 F1 Intercross Black Gray Fur Mice Phenotypic Ratio

Q.12 Name the technique Mathew Mesalson and Franklin Stahl used to evidence that DNA replication is 'semi conservative' (1)Cesium Chloride (CSCI) density gradient centrifugation (2)2D Gel Electrophoresis (3)Mass spectrometry (4)DNA sequencing

Meselson Stahl Technique

Q.11 Which type of enzyme in known to remove methyl or ethyl groups from Guanine bases that have been mutagenized by Alkylating agents? (1)Photolyase (2) DNA N-glycosylases (3) Alkyltransferase (4) AP endonuclease

Enzyme Removing Methyl Ethyl Groups

Q.10 Prokaryotic mRNAs contain a conserved polypurine tract, consensus AGGAGG, located about seven nucleotides upstream from the AUG initiation codon. This conserved hexamer is called (1) Kozak's sequences (2) Shine-Dalgano sequences (3) Consensus sequences (4) TATA box sequences

Prokaryotic mRNA AGGAGG Hexamer

Q.9 Which microbe is not capable of degrading petroleum hydrocarbons: (1)Candida (2) Achromobacter (3)Pseudomonas (4) Aspergillus

Which Microbe is Not Capable of Degrading Petroleum Hydrocarbons?

Q.8 Varicella Zoster vaccine is administered for 1.Hepatitis B virus 2.Chicken pox virus 3.Small pox virus 4.Polio virus

Varicella Zoster Vaccine

Q.7 Which molecule does not take part in inflammatory response? Dopamine Prostaglandin Thromboxane Leukotrienes

Which Molecule Does Not Take Part in Inflammatory Response?

Q.6 What are anti-isotype antibodies? directed against antigenic determinants of particular antigen combining site of a particular antibody directed against antigenic determinants that are allele specific directed against determinant present on variable region of light chain class of antibody directed against determinants present on constant region of a particular heavy or light chain class of antibody, but not on any of the others

Anti-Isotype Antibodies

Q.5 In complement systems which is not the example of anaphylatoxins – C4a C3a C7 C5a

Complement System Anaphylatoxins

Q.4 Size exclusion chromatography is used to separate the proteins on the basis of – Size Temperature Net binding specificity Net charge

Size Exclusion Chromatography Proteins

Q.3 The annealing temperature during the PCR reaction should be – 45 – 98°C 45 – 65°C 45 – 90°C 30 – 90°C

PCR Annealing Temperature

Q.2 The dye used for visualization of DNA or RNA in agarose gel is – Ethidium borate Ethidium oxide Ethidium bromide Ethidium chloride

Dye for DNA RNA Visualization in Agarose Gel

Q.1 Molecular absorption spectroscopy based on electromagnetic radiation in the wavelength region of – 190 – 800 nm 190 – 800 nm 1000 – 1500 nm 1000 – 2000 nm

Molecular Absorption Spectroscopy

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