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Q.75 Following are the steps involved in processing of green tea: (A). Fermentation and chying (B). Twisting and rolling of leaves to facilitate break up (C). Initial removal of moisture content (D). Crushing, Tearing and Curling by CTC method

Green Tea Processing Steps

Q.74 Match List I with List II List I (Photoperiodism) List II (Explanation) A. Short Day Plants (SDP) I. Day light period of 14–16 hours B. PR II. Absorbs light at 730–735 nm C. Long Day Plants (LDP) III. Dark period of about 14–16 hours D. PFR IV. Absorbs light at 660–665 nm Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Photoperiodism Matching

Q.73 Choose the correct sequence of electron transport clutång electron transpon chain of light reaction: (A) Pheophytin (B) Plastoquinone (C) Cytb6-f complex (D) Plastocyanin

Electron Transport Chain Light Reaction Sequence

Q.72 The leaves used for wrapping tobacco in a 'bidi' are.... 1. Tea leaves 2. Tendu leaves 3. Cuny leaves 4. Basil leaves

Bidi Wrapping Leaves

Q.71 Taxol medicine used in treatment of cancer is extracted from: 1. Taxus brevifolia 2.Ephedra sp. 3. Pinus roxburghii 4. Catharanthus roseus

Taxol Medicine Cancer Treatment

Q.70 Non-vascular land plants are called: 1. Pteridophytes 2. Gymnosperms 3. Angiosperms 4. Bryophytes

Non-Vascular Land Plants

Q.69 Match List I with List II List I (Condition) List II (Characteristics) Label Condition Label Characteristics A Color blindness I Deficiency of clotting factor VIII B Hemophilia B II Insensitivity to green and red light C Hemophilia A III Deficiency of clotting factor IX D G-6-PD deficiency IV Severe anemic condition Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Hemophilia Color Blindness Matching

Q.68 Which of the following statement is true for X linked recessive inheritance? 1. All sons of an normal mother should show the trait 2. All sons of an affected mother should show the trait 3. Many more females than males should exhibit the trait 4. All daughters of an normal mother should show the trait

X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

Q.67 Which of the following combinations of statements are true about C4 cycle? (A). Malic acid formed in the chloroplast of mesophyll cells (B). Malic acid is transported to the chloroplast of bundle sheath cell (C). Pyruvic acid produced in mesophyll cells move to the chloroplast of bundle sheath cells (D). Malic acid is transported to the chloroplast of mesophyll cells 1. (A), and (B) only. 2. (A), and (C) only. 3. (C) and (D) only 4. (B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Malic Acid Pathway Statements

Q.66 Which of the following statement is true for Barr body? 1. It is a highly condensed chomosome. 2. It is an active X chromosome. 3. It is equivalent to the single Y chromosome of the male. 4. It is equivalent to the two X chromosomes of the female.

Barr Body Truth

Q.65 The gene transmission from a male parent to a female offspring ("child") to a male "grandchild" is called: 1. crisscross inheritance 2. X linked inheritance 3. Y linked inheritance 4. Chromosomal inheritance

Male→Daughter→Grandson Pattern

Q.64 tRNA is synthesized by 1. RNA polymerase I 2. RNA polymerase II 3. Ribosomes 4. RNA polymerase III

tRNA Synthesized By

Q.63 The histone that links two histone octamers is 1. H1 2. H4 3. H2A 4. H2B

Histone Linking Octamers

Q.62 Transcription factors that mediate the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA template are (A).TFIIA (B).TATA box (C).TFIIB (D).Small nuclear ribonucleoproteins 1. (A) and (D). 2. (A) and (C) . 3. (C) and (D). 4. (B) and (D).

RNA Polymerase DNA Binding Factors

Q.61 The peptidyl transferase enzyme activity is located in the 1. Variable loop of tRNA 2. Large ribosomal subunit 3. Acceptor arm of tRNA 4. Small ribosomal subunit

Peptidyl Transferase Location

Q.60 Match List I with List II List I (Transposons) List II (Organism) Label Transposon Label Organism A P element I Drosophila B LINE and SINE II Human C Ty element III Yeast D Tn element IV Bacteria Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Transposons Matching

Q.59 Vessels are present in: 1. Cycas 2. Zamia 3. Ginkgo 4. Gnetum

Vessels Present In

Q.58 The basal portion of a mature ligule of Selaginella is called as: 1. Basal sheath 2. Lamella 3. Glossopodium 4. Stalk

Selaginella Ligule Anatomy

Q.57 Which one of the following is a peat moss? 1. Pellia 2. Sphagnum 3. Marchantia 4. Funaria

Peat Moss Example

Q.56 A clotting disorder which is sex-linked disease - 1. Sickle cell anaemia 2. Thalessemia 3. Hemophilia 4. Albenism

Sex-Linked Clotting Disorder

Q.55 Match List I with List II

Genomics Mapping Match

Q.54 On the basis of type of body cavity, platyhelminthes can be categorized as 1. Aceolomate 2. Schizocoelomate 3. Pseudocoelomate 4. Enterocoelomate

platyhelminthes-body-cavity-acoelomate

Q.53 The perforation between left and right atria of a fetal heart is known as 1. Foramen ovale 2. Ductus arteriosus 3. Fossa ovalis 4. Ligamentum arteriosum

Fetal Heart Atria Perforation

Q.52 The lymphoid stem cells in the bone marrow form (A). Natural killer cells (B). Platelets (C). B lymphocyte (D). Neutrophils 1. (A) and (D). 2. (A) and (C). 3. (A) and (B). 4. (C) and (D).

Bone Marrow Lymphoid Stem Cells Form

Q.51 Calcitonin is produced by 1. Follicular cells of the thyroid gland 2. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland 3. Parathyroid gland 4. Follicular cells of the ovary

Calcitonin Produced By

Q.50 The propagation of action potential in myelinated nerve fiber is faster because of 1. Continuous conduction 2. Saltatory conduction 3. Spontaneous conduction 4. Intermittent conduction

Why Myelinated Nerve Fibers Are Faster

Q.49 Match List I with List II List I List II Label Body part Label Bone involved A Shoulder I Tarsals B Thigh II Carpals C Wrist III Humerus D Ankle IV Femur Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Human Anatomy Matching

Q.48 Amino acid that serves as precursor for formation of the pigment responsible for human skin color is 1. Tryptophan 2. Cholesterol 3. Tyrosine 4. Indoleamine

Precursor for Melanin Skin Pigment

Q.47 Yellow fever is caused due to the human-to-human transmission by- 1. Aedes aegypti 2. Culex 3. Dermacentor andersoni 4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Yellow Fever Transmission

Q.46 Arrange the steps involved in Gram-stain procedure- (A). Staining with Crystal Violet (B). Staining with Gram's lodine (C). Decolorization (D). Staining with Safranine 1. (A), (B), (C), (D) 2. (A), (B), (D), (C) 3. (B), (A), (D), (C) 4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

Gram Stain Procedure Steps

Q.45 Antibody formed immediately after infection is- 1. IgM 2. IgG 3. IgD 4. IgE

Which Antibody Forms First After Infection?

Q.44 Vaccine is not available for which disease- 1. Hepatitis B 2. Influenza 3. AIDS 4. Mumps

No Vaccine Disease

Q.43 Match List I with List II List I List II A. D’Herelle and Twort I. Bacterial transformation B. Beadle and Tatum II. Penicillin C. Fleming III. One-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis D. Griffith IV. Bacterial viruses Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Match List I with List II

Q.42 Lederberg and Tatum describe the phenomena of- 1. Transformation 2. Conjugation 3. Mutation 4. Transversion

Lederberg and Tatum

Q.41 Which of the following are viral diseases- (A). Yellow fever (B). Hepatitis B (C). Chickenpox (D). Rabies 1. (A), (B) and (D) only. 2. (A), (B) and (C) only. 3. (B), (C) and (D) only. 4. (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Viral Diseases List

40. Which of the following is the example of Gram-negative bacteria? Lactobacillus Escherichia coli Bacillus subtilis Staphylococcus aureus

Gram-Negative Bacteria Examples

39. What is the function of DNA gyrase in circular DNA? Negative supercoiling Positive supercoiling DNA packaging DNA degradation

DNA Gyrase Function in Circular DNA

38. Which one of the recombinant DNA technique is almost obsolete? Long DNA synthesis DNA sequencing Polymerase Chain Reaction cDNA cloning

Which Recombinant DNA Technique Is Obsolete?

37. In human karyotype, X chromosome belongs to which group? A group B group C group D group

Human Karyotype

36. In human karyotype, chromosomes are divided into how many groups? 3 groups 5 groups 7 groups 9 groups

Human Karyotype Chromosome Groups

35. Arrange the different steps of transcription in the correct order: Transcription bubble formation Phosphorylation of CTD tail Recruitment of elongation factors Dephosphorylation of CTD tail Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A), (B), (C), (D) (A), (C), (B), (D) (B), (A), (D), (C) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Correct Order of Transcription Steps

34. Arrange the steps in the correct order as they are involved in RNA interference (RNAi). Formation of small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) Activation of RNase III like enzyme Dicer Inactivation of target RNA Formation of RISC complex Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A), (B), (C), (D) (A), (C), (B), (D) (B), (A), (D), (C) (C), (B), (D), (A)

RNAi Steps Order

33. While delivering genes by chemical methods, one popular conjecture about what happens to poly(ethylenimine)/DNA complexes following endocytosis is known as the proton sponge hypothesis, which entails the following steps: PEI/DNA complexes are endocytosed. V-ATPases pump protons into the vesicular interior. Water enters the vesicle to balance the osmotic gradient. The vesicle swells due to the entry of ions and water, leading to rupture. Which of the following combinations is correct? (A), (B) and (D) only (A), (B) and (C) only (A), (B), (C) and (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Proton Sponge Hypothesis in Gene Delivery

32. Gene gun is one of the popular physical delivery methods. Microparticles that are loaded to deliver DNA are made up of which metal? Gold Silver Copper Titanium

Which Metal Microparticles

31. Adenoviruses are frequently used in gene delivery experiments. Their average genome size is 36,000 base pairs. Of their total DNA content, upto how much of adenovirus genome can be replaced by foreign DNA? 5,000 base pairs 15,000 base pairs 20,000 base pairs 30,000 base pairs

Adenovirus Genome

Q.30 Retroviruses are enveloped viruses that can be engineered to deliver how many bases of single-stranded RNA? 500 bases 1000 bases 3000 bases 8000 bases

Retroviruses Engineered

Q.29 The complete proteins produced by an organism at any one time is called: Transcriptome Proteome Lipidome Metagenome

Complete Proteins Produced by an Organism at Any One Time

Q.28 Arrange the given processes involved in nitrogen cycle: Ammonia formation Organic nitrogen formation Soil organic nitrogen formation Nitrate formation Choose the correct answer: (A), (B), (C), (D) (A), (B), (D), (C) (B), (A), (D), (C) (B), (C), (A), (D)

Nitrogen Cycle Processes Order

Q.27 What are the function of topoisomerases? 1. Repair the chromosome ends 2.Fonn DNA isomers 3. Change the Linking Number of DNA 4. Fonn RNA isomers

Topoisomerase Function

Q.26 With the addition of linking number (Lk) by +2 to a relaxed DNA consisting of Lk = 200: DNA undergoes positive supercoiling with Lk = 202 DNA undergoes positive supercoiling with Lk = 198 DNA undergoes negative supercoiling with Lk = 202 Structure does not change

Linking Number +2 Causes Positive Supercoiling

Q.25 Arrange according to their lower to higher genome size: Lambda (λ) T4 ΦX174 T7 Choose the correct answer: (A), (B), (C), (D) (B), (A), (C), (D) (C), (D), (A), (B) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Bacteriophage Genome Size Order

Q.24 Nucleosome is basically composed of: Histone core Linker histone Core DNA Linker DNA Choose the correct answer: (A), (B) and (D) only (A), (B) and (C) only (A), (C) and (D) only (A) and (C) only

Nucleosome Composition Histone

Q.23 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Histone erasers I. Methyltransferase B. Histone readers II. Deacetylases C. Histone writers III. Topoisomerase D. DNA Unwinding IV. Bromodomain proteins Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Histone Erasers Writers Readers Matching

Q.22 What percentage of genes are found in human genome? I. 25% of the genome 2. 30% of the genome 3.40% of the genome 4.45% of the genome

Human Genome Gene Percentage

Q.21 Number of chromosomes present in Arabidopsis thaliana is- 1.8 2. 10 3. 12 4. 14

Arabidopsis Thaliana Chromosomes Number

Q.20 Match List I with List II LIST I DNA/RNA Modifying Enzymes LIST II Reactions A. DNase I I. Cleaves and digests RNA and not DNA B. RNase A II. Cleaves and digests the RNA strand of RNA-DNA heteroduplex C. S1 nuclease III. Produces single-stranded nicks in DNA D. RNase H IV. Degrades single-stranded DNA and RNA Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

DNase RNase S1 Nuclease Matching

Q.19 In the technique called centrifugation, the centrifugal field (G) is calculated as: G = ω × r2 G = ω2 × r G = ω2 × r2 G = ω × r

Centrifugal Field Formula in Centrifugation

Q.18 Which is not a unit of radioactivity? 1. Gray (gy) 2. Roentgen (R) 3. Millicurie (mCi) 4. Pascal (p)

Which is Not a Unit of Radioactivity?

Q.17 Vertical gel electrophoresis is routinely used for the seperation of- I. Protein 2. DNA 3. RNA 4. Carbohydrate and lipid

Vertical Gel Electrophoresis Separation

Q.16 Arrange the given steps involved in polymerase chain reaction- (A). Denaturation (B). Annealing (C). Extension (D). Cycling

PCR Steps Sequence

Q.15 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Western Blotting I. DNA identification B. Southern Blotting II. Protein identification C. Northern Blotting III. Protein-protein interaction D. Yeast two-hybrid system IV. RNA identification Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Western Southern Northern Blotting Matching

Q.14 Isoelectric focusing allows seperation of the proteins according to their- 1.pH 2. pl 3. pKa 4. pKb

Isoelectric Focusing Protein Separation

Q.13 What is the role of sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) in protein electrophoresis (A). Add net negative charge to the protein (B). Seperate lipids on the basis of their molecular weight (C). Modify native conformation ofa protein (D). Allows direct destaining of the proteins 1. (A). (B) and (D) only 2. (A) and (C) only. 3. (C) and (D). 4. (B) and (D) only.

Role of SDS in Protein Electrophoresis

Q.12 Which metal is used for electron beam generation in scanning election nucroscopy? 1. Tungsten (W) 2. Magnesium (Mg) 3. Mercury (Hg) 4. Zinc (Zn)

Metal Electron Beam Generation

Q.11 The technique used to identify the specific DNA in bacterial colonies is- I. In-situ hybridization 2. Dot blot 3. Colony hybridization 4. Western hybridization

Colony Hybridization Technique

Q.10 Which of the is not a fluorescence I. Alexa Fluor 2. Green fluorescent protein (GFP) 3. Red fluorescent protein (DsRed) 4. Xylene cyanol

Which of the Following is Not a Fluorescence

Q.9 Identify the con•ect sequence of the given enzymes involed in TCA cycle (A). Aconitase (B). Fumarase (C). Maltate dehydrogenase (D). a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

TCA Cycle Enzymes Sequence

Q.8 Identify the correct sequence of the given intermediates fonned during glycolysis A. Fnrctose 1,6-biphosphate B. Fructose 6 phosphate C. Lactate D. Phosphoenolpynrcate Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Glycolysis Intermediates Sequence

Q.7 Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II Vitamin Disorder A. Vitamin-A I. Night blindness B. Vitamin-D II. Scurvy C. Vitamin-C III. Fat soluble vitamin D. Vitamin-K IV. Blood clotting Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Vitamin Disorder Matching List

Enzyme Defective Galactosemia Fatal Genetic Disorder Infants

Q.5 Which of the are components of lipid raft in plasma membrane? A. Cholesterol B. Sphingolipids C. Glycolipids D. Phospholipids Choose the conect answer from the options given below: I. (A) and (B) only 2. (A) and (C) only 3. (B) and (C) only 4. (C) and (D) only Options : 68019147817. 1 68019147818. 2 68019147819. 3 68019147820. 4

Lipid Raft Components Plasma Membrane

Q.4 Why is the presence of proline destablizes a-helix? A. Proline residue introduces a destablizing kink in the a-helix B. In proline, the nitrogen atom is a patt of a rigid ring. and rotation about N-C bond is not possible C. The nitrogen atom of a proline residue in a peptide linkage has no subsituent hydrogen to panicipate in hydrogen bonds with other residues D. Proline residue works as a helix linker Choose the correct answer from the options given below: l. (A). (B) and (D) only 2. (A). (B) and (C) only 3. (A). (C) and (D) 4. (B). (C) and (D) only Options : 68019147813. 1 68019147814. 2 68019147815. 3 68019147816. 4

Why Proline Destabilizes Alpha Helix

Q.3 Which of the following enzyme is inhibited by citrate in Kreb's cycle? I. Phospho-fructo kinase II (PFKII) 2. Aldolase 3. Pynrcate kinase 4. Phosphoglycerate mutase (PGM) Options : 68019147809. 1 68019147810. 2 68019147811.3 68019147812. 4

Which Enzyme is Inhibited by Citrate in Krebs Cycle?

Q.2 Match List I with List II LIST I (Enzyme) LIST II (Function) A. Cytochrome oxidase I. Electron transport system B. Topoisomerases II. Change linking number C. Cohesins III. DNA Replication D. PCNA IV. Cell cycle Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) Options: 68019147805. 1 68019147806. 2 68019147807. 3 68019147808. 4

Cytochrome Oxidase, Topoisomerases, Cohesins, PCNA Functions

Q1. The portion of transmembrane proteins that cross the lipid bilayer are usually: α-helices β-sheet turns loops Options 68019147801. 1 68019147802. 2 68019147803. 3 68019147804. 4

Transmembrane Proteins Lipid Bilayer

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