CUET PG Biochemistry 2024 Previous Year Question Papers PDF with Solutions Archives - Page 2 of 8 - CSIR NET LIFE SCIENCE COACHING | NTA NET LIFE SCIENCE | CSIR LIFE SCIENCE

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Question 75: The substrate concentration at which an enzyme-catalyzed reaction proceeds at one-half of its velocity is called: (A) Kcat (B) Km (C) V0 (D) Vmax

Substrate Concentration Half Maximum Velocity Enzyme

Question 74: A substance that receives electrons in an oxidation-reduction reaction is called: (A) Electron acceptor (B) Electron donor (C) Electron carrier (D) Eluate

Substance Receives Electrons Oxidation-Reduction Reaction

Question 73: In 1953, Frederick Sanger determined the amino acid sequence of which protein? (A) Caspase (B) Hemoglobin (C) Insulin (D) DNA polymerase

Frederick Sanger 1953 Amino Acid Sequence

Question 72: One Angstrom (Å) is equal to: (A) 0.1 nanometer (B) 0.01 nanometer (C) 0.001 nanometer (D) 0.01 micrometer

One Angstrom Equals

Question 71: Read the following statements carefully: (A) Ultracentrifugation separates molecules based on their density (B) Gel electrophoresis separates molecules based on their mobility in an electric field (C) Gel filtration separates molecules based on their size (D) NMR separates molecules based on their proton signal Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (D) only (B) (A), (B) and (C) only (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Lowest pH Value

Question 70: Human acute liver failure can be due to: (A) Viral hepatitis (B) Medicine (C) Toxins (D) Ischemia

Human Acute Liver Failure Causes

Question 69: The causes of increased Gamma-glutamyl Transferase (GGT) in human serum can be due to: (A) Alcoholism (B) Hepatitis (C) Pancreatitis (D) Liver metastasis

Causes of Increased Gamma-glutamyl Transferase

Question 68: Among the following Liver Function Tests, which one indicates hepatocellular damage? (A) AST (B) ALP (C) BIL (D) GGT

Liver Function Tests Hepatocellular Damage

Question 67: Of the following pH values, which one is the lowest? (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 7

Lowest pH Value Explained

Question 66: Albinism is a genetic disorder associated with: (A) Heart (B) Skin (C) Kidney (D) Urine

Albinism Genetic Disorder

Question 65: Among the following enzymes, which one has the highest turnover number (kcat)? (A) Catalase (B) Carbonic anhydrase (C) Fumarase (D) Acetylcholinesterase

Enzyme with Highest Turnover Number kcat

Question 64: Enzymes that are involved in the transfer of electrons (hydride ions or H atoms) are called: (A) Transferases (B) Hydrolases (C) Oxidoreductases (D) Ligases

Enzymes Transfer Electrons Hydride Ions

Question 63: Immune cells that ingest large particles and cells by phagocytosis are called: (A) Macrophages (B) B lymphocytes (C) Cytotoxic T cells (D) Helper T cells

Immune Cells Phagocytosis Large Particles

Question 62: A metabolic condition in which the capacity of the body to buffer OH- is diminished, is called: (A) Acidosis (B) Alkalosis (C) Kurtosis (D) Lipidosis

Metabolic Condition Buffer OH- Diminished

Question 61: In a substrate-enzyme reaction, the term Kd denotes which one of the following? (A) Equilibrium constant (B) Dissociation constant (C) Association constant (D) Turnover rate

Substrate-Enzyme Reaction Kd

Question 60: Match List I with List II: List I: Ion Channel Defects List II: Disease A. Na+ (iii) Cystic fibrosis B. Ca2+ (iv) Dominant deafness C. K+ (i) Polycystic kidney disease D. Cl (ii) Generalized epilepsy Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Ion Channel Defects Matching

Question 59: Match List I with List II: List I: Animal Plasma Membrane List II: Type of Sterol A. Human myelin sheath (iii) Cholesterol B. Maize leaf (iv) Stigmasterol C. Yeast (ii) Ergosterol D. Paramecium (i) Sitosterol Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Animal Plasma Membrane Sterols

Question 58: Match List I with List II: List I: Category List II: Examples A. Fatty acids (iv) Oleate B. Prenol lipids (ii) Farnesol C. Saccharolipids (iii) Lipopolysaccharide D. Polyketides (i) Tetracycline Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

Lipid Categories Matching

Question 57: Phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylserine are examples of: (A) Fatty acids (B) Glycerolipids (C) Glycerophospholipids (D) Sphingolipids

Phosphatidylcholine Phosphatidylserine

Question 56: Which of the following statements are correct? (A) Some types of lipids play critical roles as cofactors or signals. (B) Prostaglandins are derived from arachidonate. (C) Steroid hormones are derived from sterols. (D) Vitamins D, A, and E are fat-soluble. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (D) only (B) (A), (B) and (C) only (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Lipids Cofactors Prostaglandins Steroid Hormone

Question 55: Warfarin has which of the following functions? (A) Blood anticoagulant (B) Mitochondrial electron carrier (C) Antioxidant (D) A sugar carrier

Warfarin Function

Question 54: Another name for Vitamin D3 is: (A) Retinol (B) Dolichol (C) Tocopherol (D) Cholecalciferol

Vitamin D3 Another Name

Question 53: Match List I with List II: List I: Type of Food List II: % trans fatty acids/gram A. French Fries (iii) 28 B. Pizza (iv) 9 C. Muffin (i) 14 D. Chocolate Bar (ii) 2 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Trans Fatty Acids in Food

Question 52: The enzyme reverse transcriptase: (A) Joins RNA-RNA fragments (B) Makes a copy of DNA from an RNA molecule (C) Removes terminal phosphates from 5’ end (D) Cleaves RNA at random positions

Reverse Transcriptase Enzyme Function

Question 51: In E.coli, the enzyme that fills gaps in duplexes by stepwise addition of nucleotides to the 3’ end is called: (A) Type II restriction endonucleases (B) DNA polymerase I (C) DNA ligase (D) Terminal transferase

E. coli Enzyme Fills Gaps in Duplexes

Question 50: What is the rate of mortality in acute liver failure? (A) 10% - 20% (B) 30% - 40% (C) 60% - 70% (D) Up to 90%

Acute Liver Failure Mortality Rate

Question 49: Which of the following is the main cause of liver failure? (A) Viral hepatitis (B) Deletion of chromosome 5p (C) Psychosomatic (D) Low Mg2+ concentration

Main Cause of Liver Failure

Question 48: A patient presents herself with stunted growth, web-like neck, and an absence of X chromosome. What would be your diagnosis of this genetic condition? (A) Down syndrome (B) Turner syndrome (C) Klinefelter syndrome (D) Cri-du-chat syndrome

Turner Syndrome Diagnosis

Question 47: A decrease in the concentration of serum albumin leads to which of the following conditions? (A) Chronic liver disease (B) Hemochromatosis (C) Wilson disease (D) Cirrhosis

Low Serum Albumin Decrease

Question 46: In kidneys the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) depends upon: (A) The difference in hydrostatic and oncotic pressures between the glomerular capillaries and the lumen of the nephron. (B) The nature of glomerular basement membrane. (C) Total available filtration area. (D) Relative concentration of ions. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (C) only (B) (A), (B) and (D) only (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Glomerular Filtration Rate Determinants

Question 45: A human condition of acid-base disturbance with high H+ ions in the blood is called: (A) Acidosis (B) Acidemia (C) Alkalemia (D) Alkalosis

High H+ Ions Acid-Base Disturbance

Question 44: Hyponatremia is a condition where the concentration of the following ion decreases below normal level in plasma: (A) Sodium (B) Potassium (C) Zinc (D) Magnesium

Low Sodium Concentration in Plasma

Shine-Dalgarno Sequence in mRNA

Question 42: The step in an enzymatic reaction of a pathway that needs greatest amount of activation energy is called: (A) Rate constant (B) Rate limiting (C) Rate enhancing (D) Kcat

Rate Limiting Step in Enzymatic Reactions

Question 41: A group of contiguous nucleotide codons in DNA molecule that does not include a termination codon is called: (A) Open Reading Frame (B) Operon (C) Genetic code (D) Cis trans system

Open Reading Frame in DNA

Question 40: A mutation in the GLA (alpha-galactosidase A) gene leads to which one of the following conditions? (A) Fabry disease (B) Gaucher disease (C) Phenylketonuria (D) Cri-du-chat syndrome

GLA Gene Mutation Leads to Which Disease?

Question 39: Which one of the following is a disease caused by defects in enzymes necessary for heme biosynthesis? (A) Lesch Nyhan syndrome (B) Porphyria (C) Huntington’s disease (D) Marfan Syndrome

Heme Biosynthesis Enzyme Defects Disease

Question 38: A genetic mutation that limits the production of glucocerebrosidase, an enzyme responsible for breaking down fats, leads to which of the following diseases? (A) Klinefelter Syndrome (B) Phenylketonuria (C) Gaucher’s disease (D) Turner Syndrome

Glucocerebrosidase Mutation Causes

Question 37: When wool sweaters are washed in hot water, they shrink. In contrast, when silk clothes are washed, they do not shrink under the same conditions: (A) The β-woolen polypeptide chains are converted to the native α-helical conformation. (B) The structure of silk β-sheets is more stable than that of wool. (C) The β-woolen polypeptide chains remain in their native conformation. (D) The structure of silk β-sheets is less stable than that of the wool protein structure. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) only (B) (A), (B) and (D) only (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Why Wool Sweaters Shrink

Question 36: When a protein has two or more polypeptide subunits, their folding arrangement is called: (A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure (C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure

Protein Polypeptide Subunits Folding

Question 35: The number of enzyme units per milligram of total protein is called: (A) Activity (B) Specific activity (C) Kcat (D) Km

The Number of Enzyme Units per Milligram

Question 34: Match List I with List II: List I Protein Name List II Molecular Weight (kDa) A. β-galactosidase (ii) 116.25 B. Bovine Serum Albumin (iv) 66.2 C. Ovalbumin (i) 14.4 D. Lysozyme (iii) 45 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (D) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Protein Molecular Weight Matching

Question 33: One calorie (cal) equals to how many joules (J)? (A) 2.18 (B) 4.18 (C) 6.18 (D) 7.18

One Calorie Equals How Many Joules?

Question 32: The energy derived from noncovalent interactions between enzyme and substrate is called: (A) Bond energy (B) Activation energy (C) Binding energy (D) Entropy

Enzyme Substrate Binding Energy

Question 31: Which one of the following i.e., number of molecules per gram molecular weight, represents the Avogadro’s number (N)? (A) 6.02 × 106 (B) 6.02 × 107 (C) 6.02 × 1023 (D) 6.02 × 1033

Avogadro’s Number (N)

Question 30: The catabolic lysosomal degradation of cellular proteins is called: (A) Phagocytosis (B) Autophagy (C) Chaperon (D) Autotroph

Lysosomal Protein Degradation

Question 29: Which one of the following is the basis for protein structural classification? (A) Length (B) Genus (C) Composition (D) Motif

Protein Structural Classification Basis

Question 28: A researcher engineers a lac operon on a plasmid inactivating all parts of the lac operator and the lac promoter, replacing them with the binding site for the LexA repressor and promoter regulated by LexA. The plasmid is introduced into E.coli cells that have a lac operon with an inactive lacZ gene. Under what conditions will these transformed cells produce β-galactosidase? (A) On subjecting E.coli cells to high levels of a DNA-damaging agent like UV light (B) On starving E.coli cells (C) On growing E.coli cells in lactose-rich medium (D) On co-culturing E.coli cells with B subtilis

Lac Operon LexA Fusion

Question 27: Read the following statements carefully: (A) DNA ligases are enzymes that create a phosphodiester bond between DNA fragments. (B) A protein containing one or more prosthetic groups is called a conjugated protein. (C) A type of enzyme inhibition reversed by increasing the substrate concentration is called competitive inhibition. (D) Two stereoisomers of a given sugar that differ only in the configuration about carbonyl carbon atom are called anomers. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (C) only (B) (A), (B) and (D) only (C) (A), (C) and (D) only (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

DNA Ligase, Conjugated Proteins & Enzyme Inhibition

Question 26: Which of the following statements are correct? (A) DNA microarray is a collection of DNA sequences immobilized on a solid surface that can be probed by hybridization. (B) Differential centrifugation describes the separation of cell organelles by different rates of sedimentation. (C) Amino acids that cannot be synthesized by humans but are synthesized by microbes are called essential amino acids. (D) Equilibrium constant is specific for each chemical reaction. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A), (B) and (C) only (B) (A), (B) and (D) only (C) (A), (C) and (D) only (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

DNA Microarray, Centrifugation & Equilibrium

Question 25: Enzymes that play two distinct roles, at least one of which is catalytic, the other may be catalytic, regulatory, or structural, are called: (A) Moonlighting (B) Mutases (C) Polymerases (D) Paralogs

Moonlighting Enzymes

Question 24: The pH at which an amino acid has no net electric charge and thus does not move in an electric field is called: (A) Isomer (B) Isoelectric (C) Isoprene (D) Isozyme

Amino Acid Point

Question 23: The component of the total energy of a system that can do work at constant temperature and pressure is called: (A) Enthalpy (B) Entropy (C) Free energy (D) Kinetic energy

Thermodynamic Work Potential

Question 22: Enzymes that create a phosphodiester bond between the 3’ end of one DNA segment and the 5’ end of another are called: (A) Lyase (B) Ligase (C) Oxidoreductase (D) Hydrolase

DNA Phosphodiester Bond

Question 21: A series of overlapping clones defining an uninterrupted section of a genome is called: (A) Contour (B) Contig (C) Capsid (D) Chiral

Contig: Overlapping Genome Clones

Question 20: A spatial arrangement of substituent groups that are free to assume different positions in space, without breaking any bonds (due to freedom in bond rotation) is called: (A) Rotation (B) Conformation (C) Conjugation (D) Config

Bond Rotation Spatial Arrangement

Question 19: A DNA or amino acid sequence consisting of residues that most commonly occur at each position in a set of similar sequences are called: (A) Classified sequence (B) Compound sequence (C) Conjugated sequence (D) Consensus sequence

Consensus Sequence in DNA

Question 18: A substance that can act either as a base or an acid is called: (A) Ampholyte (B) Analyte (C) Antagonist (D) Aptamer

Ampholyte: Dual Acid-Base Substance

Question 17: 4-hydroxyproline is an example of: (A) Nonstandard amino acid (B) Hormone (C) Antibiotic (D) Antibody

4-Hydroxyproline Classification

Question 16: An antigenic determinant to which a given antibody binds is called: (A) Epimer (B) Cytokine (C) Epitope (D) Anticodon

Antigenic Determinant to Antibody

Question 15: Match List I with List II: List I Condition/Structure List II Description A. Hypokalemia I. Sweat glands B. Hypocapnia II. CO2 C. Sudoriferous glands III. Spermatogenesis D. Sertoli cells IV. Potassium Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (B) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

Hypokalemia & Hypocapnia Matching

Question 14: In cytosol, the product yield from the oxidation of one molecule of glucose is: (A) 2 pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 ATP (B) 2 pyruvate + 1 NADH + 2 ATP (C) 1 pyruvate + 2 NADH + 2 ATP (D) 1 pyruvate + 1 NADH + 2 ATP

Glucose Oxidation in Cytosol

Question 13: Match List I with List II: List I Functional Group List II Description A. Hydroxyl I. DNA B. Carboxyl II. Proteins C. Amino III. Polar D. Phosphate IV. Fatty acids Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (B) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (C) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) (D) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Functional Groups Matching

Question 12: Hungry bone syndrome is associated with: (A) Diabetes mellitus (B) Hyperparathyroidism (C) Sodium (D) Vitamin B

Hungry Bone Syndrome

Question 11: From the following data, identify the correct pH value of seawater: (A) 6.5 (B) 7.0 (C) 7.8 (D) 8.5

Seawater pH Value

Question 10: At 25 °C, the degree of ionization of pure water at equilibrium is: (A) 20 per 109 molecules (B) 10 per 109 molecules (C) 2 per 109 molecules (D) 12 per 109 molecules

Pure Water Ionization Degree

Question 9: Which of the following has the highest heat of vaporization (J/g)? (A) Methanol (B) Ethanol (C) Water (D) Butanol

Highest Heat of Vaporization

Question 8: Sulfur bacteria are examples of which of the following: (A) Organotrophs (B) Autotrophs (C) Lithotrophs (D) Phototrophs

Sulfur Bacteria Examples

Question 7: From the evolutionary standpoint, extreme thermophiles are more closely connected with which one of the following: (A) Cyanobacteria (B) Methanogens (C) Fungi (D) Microsporidia

Extreme Thermophiles Evolutionary Connection

Question 6: The most abundant monosaccharide in nature is: (A) Maltose (B) Glucose (C) Lactose (D) Amylose

Most Abundant Monosaccharide in Nature

Question 5: How much percentage of the human genome is represented by the exome? (A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 1 (D) 20

Human Genome Exome Percentage

Question 4: In 2014, scientists from the Scripps Research Institute, California, announced the development of 6 base DNA. A new base pair that they added to the standard 4 base (ATGC) DNA was called: (A) X-Y (B) P-Q (C) A*-T* (D) G*-C*

Scripps 6 Base DNA 2014

Question 3: Pairs of stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other are called: (A) Enantiomers (B) Chiral centres (C) Racemic mixture (D) Diastereomers

Pairs of Stereoisomers Not Mirror Images

Question 2: The science of collecting small molecules in a given cell under a specific set of conditions is called: (A) Proteomics (B) Transcriptomics (C) Lipidomics (D) Metabolomics

What Is Metabolomics?

Question 1: How much of the protein content makes an E.coli cell, in terms of the percentage of the total weight of the cell? (A) 15.0 (B) 5.0 (C) 0.5 (D) 30.0

E. coli Protein Content Percentage

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