Category: CUET PG Biochemistry 2023 Previous Year Question Shift-3(1) Papers PDF with Solutions

Category: CUET PG Biochemistry 2023 Previous Year Question Shift-3(1) Papers PDF with Solutions

CUET PG Biochemistry 2023 Previous Year Question Shift-3(1) Papers PDF with Solutions

Q75.Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Type II restriction endonuclease I. Removes nucleotides from 5′ ends of duplex DNA B. DNA ligase II. Removes nucleotides from the 3′ ends of a DNA strand C. Exonuclease III III. Cleaves DNA at specific base sequences D. Bacteriophage λ exonuclease IV. Joins two DNA molecules Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Restriction Endonuclease DNA Ligase Exonuclease III Bacteriophage λ Exonuclease

Q74.Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Fatty acids I. Tetracycline, Aflatoxin B₁ B. Glycerolipids II. Oleate, Stearoyl-CoA C. Saccharolipids III. Triacylglycerols D. Polyketides IV. Lipopolysaccharide Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Fatty Acids, Glycerolipids, Saccharolipids, Polyketides Explained

Q73.Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Thiamine pyrophosphate I. Glycogen phosphorylase B. Pyridoxal phosphate II. Pyruvate carboxylase C. Biotin III. Lactate dehydrogenase D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide IV. Pyruvate dehydrogenase Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Matching Coenzymes with Enzymes

Q72.Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Caspases I. Degradation B. Proteases II. Replication C. Polymerases III. Signalling D. Kinases IV. Apoptosis Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Enzyme Function Matching

Q71.Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. X-ray crystallography I. Molecular weight determination B. Mass spectrometry II. Protein detection C. Gel filtration III. Protein structure D. Western blotting IV. Protein purification Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Protein Techniques Matching

Q70.Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Histidine I. pKₐ 6.0 B. Lysine II. pKₐ 10.6 C. Tyrosine III. pKₐ 4.1 D. Aspartic acid IV. pKₐ 10.9 Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

 Amino Acid pKa Values

Q69.Match List I with List II LIST I LIST II A. Aversion to water I. DNA content of cells B. Levinthal paradox II. Hydrophobic effect C. C-value paradox III. Protein conformations D. Ramachandran plot IV. Protein folding Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Levinthal Paradox C-Value

Q68.Restriction enzymes are the enzymes that: A. catalyze restricted reactions in DNA replication. B. are essential tools in biotechnology. C. were discovered by Sanger and Pauling. D. Cut DNA specifically. E. are the immune defense mechanism in bacteria. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) B, D, E Only (2) C, D, E Only (3) A, B Only (4) C, D Only

Restriction Enzymes

Q67.Which of the following are true for Nucleosomes? A. Protein bodies B. Protein–DNA complexes C. Nucleic acids are covalently linked to proteins D. Protein octamers are wrapped with approximately 200 bp of DNA E. 10 nm fibers for DNA packing Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A, B, D Only (2) B, D, E Only (3) C, D, E Only (4) A, C, B Only

Nucleosome Structure

Q66.Which of the following statements together describe the integral membrane proteins: A. Form main component of the biological membranes B. Are soluble in aqueous solutions C. Mostly composed of polar amino acids and are lysine rich D. Are soluble in sodium dodecyl sulphate (SDS) E. Form aggregates in aqueous solutions Choose the correct answer from the option given below: (1) A, D, E Only (2) C, D, E Only (3) B, C, D Only (4) A, D, E Only

Integral Membrane Proteins Characteristics

Q65.Sickle cell anemia causes sickling of the RBCs. Which of the following is not correct for the disease? A. Haemoglobin forms large aggregates. B. Disease does not affect the oxyhaemoglobin but decreases solubility of deoxyhaemoglobin. C. The enhanced aggregation propensity is due to the hydrophobic effect of the underlying mutation. D. The patients are more prone to malaria. E. The disease is not curable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A, B, C Only (2) C, D, E Only (3) D, E Only (4) B, C Only

Sickle Cell Anemia Sickling RBCs

Q64.Hydrophobic effect has a major role in the stabilization of three dimensional structure of proteins. Which of the following amino acids form part of this effect: A. Glycine, Alanine, leucine B. Valine, Methionine, Isoleucine C. Tryptophan, Tyrosine, Phenylalanine D. Tryptophan, Proline, Phenylalanine E. Tyrosine, Serine, lysine Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A, B, D Only (2) A, B Only (3) C, E Only (4) E, B Only

Hydrophobic Amino Acids Protein Structure

Q63.For the separation of two proteins with same molecular weight, which of the following techniques could be used: A. SDS-PAGE B. 2D-SDS-PAGE C. Mass spectrometry with liquid chromatography D. Gel filtration E. Gel filtration and SDS-PAGE Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) E, A Only (2) A, D Only (3) A, B Only (4) B and C Only

 Protein Separation Same Molecular Weight

Q.62 What is true about bacterial DNA-dependent RNA Polymerase. A. It is an oligomer of approximately 400KDa. B. Its beta(ß) subunit together with Mg2T converts ribonucleotides into RNA. C. a-amanitin strongly inhibits the enzyme. D. The enzyme can also form DNA from RNA. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. B and C Only 2. C and D Only 3. A and B Only 4. A, B, and D Only

Bacterial RNA Polymerase Facts

Q.61 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Sanger's chain termination method is used for sequencing of a single stranded DNA by using nucleotides and short DNA stretches. Statement II : Sanger's protein sequencing method uses 1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene, dansyl chloride and nucleosides for protein sequencing. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Sanger Sequencing Method

Q.60 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Chymotrypsin hydrolyzes peptide bond through the formation of a transient covalent acyl- enzyme intermediate. Statement II : This type of mechanism in enzyme catalysis is operative in all the enzymes in biology. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Chymotrypsin Acyl-Enzyme Mechanism

Q.59 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is present on the cell surface of T-cells for antigen recognition. Statement II : During organ transplantation, the major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is involved in allograft rejection. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

MHC in Immunology

Q.58 Given below are two statements : Statement I : The peptide bond Ca-C-N-Ca present in proteins is rigid and planar. Statement II : Proteins are highly dynamic and undergo large conformational changes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Peptide Bond Rigidity in Proteins

Q.57 Given below are two statements : Statement I: In all naturally occurring 20 amino acids, both carboxyl and amino groups are bonded to the a- carbon. Statement II : According to organic chemistry IUPAC nomenclature, a-carbon is also the C-1 carbon of an amino acid. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 Amino Acid Alpha Carbon

Q.56 Given below are two statements : Statement I: Phototrophs and chemotrophs derive their energy from sunlight and chemical fuels. respectively. Statement II : Phototrophs and chemotrophs cannot be autotrophs but only heterotrophs. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Phototrophs vs Chemotrophs

Q.55 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Cooperativity in receptor-ligand interaction causes large change in receptor activation with small change in ligand concentration. Statement II: In amplification, the enzyme associated with signal receptor is activated which in turn activates many downstream enzymes in a so called enzyme cascade. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Cooperativity in Receptor-Ligand Interaction

Q.54 Hydrophobic nature of amino acids affects the tertiary structure of proteins. Which of the following option shows the given amino acids in decreasing order of their hydrophobic character? A. Leucine B. Phenylalanine C. Glycine D. Histidine E. Lysine Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, C, E, D, B B, A, C, D, E B, E, D, C, A A, B, D, C, E

Hydrophobic Amino Acids Order

Q.53 DNA cloning is an essential tool in recombinant DNA technology. Arrange the different steps of DNA cloning in proper sequential order. A. Restriction digestion of the insert and plasmid. B. Selection of the host cells or transformants having the recombinant DNA. C. In vitro DNA ligation. D. Transformation of the ligated DNA. E. Confirmation of recombinant DNA by sequencing. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B, C, D, A, E A, D, C, E, B A, C, D, B, E B, A, D, C, E

Recombinant DNA Technology

Q.52 Reverse transcriptase is used for synthesizing cDNA from RNA. Which of the following option represents the correct order of the given steps? A. Annealing of the oligo dT primer to mRNA B. DNA polymerase I and dNTPs form dsDNA C. Reverse transcriptase forms the complementary single stranded DNA D. mRNA is degraded with alkali E. Downstream analysis of dsDNA Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, C, D, B, E A, E, D, B, C D, A, C, B, E B, C, A, E, D

Reverse Transcriptase cDNA Synthesis Steps Order

Q.51 Nucleotides, Nucleosides, purines and pyrimidines are the building blocks of DNA and RNA. Based on their molecular weight, arrange these molecules in an ascending order. A. Purine B. Nucleotide C. Pyrimidine D. Nucleoside E. Phosphate Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, C, D, B, E A, B, C, D, E E, A, D, B, C E, C, A, D, B

Nucleotides Nucleosides Purines Pyrimidines Molecular Weight Order

Q.50 In analogy with central dogma of biology, how will you arrange the following omics in a correct sequence: A. Metabolomics B. Proteomics C. Genomics D. Transcriptomics E. Phenotype or Phenomics Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B, C, D, E, A C, B, D, A, E C, D, B, A, E C, E, B, A, D

Omics Sequence Central Dogma

Q.49 Phosphoryl transfer reactions are essential for the energy content of a cell. Find the correct answer in which the following phosphorylated molecules have been arranged in a decreasing order of their phosphoryl transfer potentials: A. Adenosine triphosphate B. 1,3-bisphosphate glycerate C. Phosphoenol pyruvate D. Glucose-6-phosphate E. Glucose-3-phosphate Choose the correct answer from the options given below: C, B, A, D, E B, C, A, D, E B, C, D, A, E C, B, D, A, E

Phosphoryl Transfer Potential Order

Q.48 Malate, Fumarate and Succinate precede the formation of oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle. Find the option which shows correct order of their formation in the citric acid cycle. A. Malate B. Fumarate C. Oxaloacetate D. Succinate Choose the correct answer from the options given below: D, B, A, C D, B, C, A B, D, C, A B, D, A, C

Citric Acid Cycle Order

Q.47 Give below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A : Treatment of monosaccharides with sodium amalgam reduces their aldehyde and keto groups to con•esponding acid : Reason R : D-Dulcitol and D-Sorbitol are the conesponding alcohols ofD-galactose and D-glucose, respectively. In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is conect but R is not correct 4. A is not conect but R is correct

Monosaccharides Sodium Amalgam Reduction

Q.46 Give below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : Sum of all the proteins functioning in a given cell is called the proteome : Proteomics is the systematic characterization of this proteome under a given condition. Reason R : Expression of genome under a particular condition and its translation is the basis of cell's proteome. In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the con•ect explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is conect but R is not correct 4. A is not conect but R is correct

Proteome Proteomics

Q.45 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : While the pKa of a free lysine is 10.5, the pKa of lysine decreases to 6.6 when present in the active site of Acetoacetate decarboxylase. Reason R : The decreased pKa of lysine in the active site is due to the electrostatic effect of nearby positive charges. In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the conect explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is conect but R is not correct 4. A is not correct but R is correct

Lysine pKa Active Site Enzyme

Q.44 Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertions A : Protein kinases catalyze the transfer of gamma (y) - phosphoryl group of ATP to proteins. Serine, threonine or Wrosine are the general amino acids that are phosphorylated. Reason R : Phosphorylation of proteins by protein kinases makes them aggregated and non-functional with subsequent degradation. In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the conect explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the comect explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is not correct 4. A is not correct but R is correct

Protein Kinases Phosphorylation

Q.43 Give below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : Klinefelter's syndrome have minor phenotypic anomalies with small testis and enlarged breasts. These individuals have 47 chromosomes with 44 autosomes plus XXY. Reason R : Males with XYY syndrome have two Y chromosomes. Such individuals have anti social behavior and aggression. Their frequency is approximately I to 650. In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the conect explanation ofA 2. Both A and R are con•ect but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is not correct 4. A is not correct but R is correct.

Klinefelter Syndrome XXY and XYY

Q.42 Give below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Prokatyotes have three RNA polymerases. Prokaryotic RNA pol II synthesizes ribosomal RNAs. Reasons R : In Eukaryotes RNA Polymerase II synthesizes mRNA and is sensitive to low concentration of a- amanitin. In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. Both A and R are con•ect and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both a and R are correct but R is NOT the con•ect explanation of A. 3. A is corect but R is not correct. 4. A is not con•ect but R is correct.

Prokaryotic vs Eukaryotic RNA Polymerase

Q.41 Give below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : Protein folding is essential for structure and function is still an unresolved problem in biology, Protein folding problems lead to aggregation and is a cause for many diseases : Reason R : Levinthal's paradox is a theoretical calculation of the time needed for a protein to fold. Accordingly, a polypeptide may take billions of years to fold if all the possible conformations are during protein folding. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is conect but R is not correct 4. A is not conect but R is correct

Protein Folding Problem

Q.40 A plot between the Φ and ψ dihedral angles of a peptide bond is called as: Hydropathy Plot Ramachandran Plot Volcano Plot Both Hydropathy and Ramachandran Plot

Plot Φ ψ Dihedral Angles Peptide Bond

Q.39 IgM is a pentamer. Upon visualisation of a pure IgM by electrophoresis on a reducing polyacrylamide gel, the number of protein bands to be visible on the gel would be: 5 10 2 4

IgM Pentamer Electrophoresis Reducing Gel

Q.38 The concentration of OH- in a solution with H+ concentration of 1.3 × 10-4 M is: 7.7 × 10-22 M 7.0 × 10-12 M 7.7 × 10-11 M 1 × 10-14 M

Concentration of OH- in Solution with H+ 1.3 × 10-4 M

Q.37 During glycolysis, conversion of 1 mole of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to 2 moles of pyruvate leads to the formation of: 2 moles of NADH and 4 moles of ATP 1 mole of NADH and 1 mole of ATP 2 moles of NADH and 2 moles of ATP 2 moles of NADH and 2.5 moles of ATP

Fructose 1,6-Bisphosphate to Pyruvate

Q.36 The breakdown of the long chain fatty acids to acetyl CoA via β-oxidation takes place in: The mitochondrial matrix The endoplasmic reticulum The mitochondrial inner membrane space The cytosol

Beta-Oxidation Location

Q.35 Oxidation of one molecule of FADH2 in the respiratory chain forms how many molecules of ATP? 1 through complex I 2.5 through complexes I and IV 1.5 through complexes II and IV 2 through complexes I and III

FADH2 Oxidation ATP Yield

Q.34 The following reactions are given: Reaction 1: Glucose + Pi → Glucose-6-Phosphate + H2O can only occur when the Reaction 2: ATP → ADP + Pi occurs. This is because: The ΔG°′ of reaction 1 is negative. The ΔG°′ of reaction 2 is positive. The ΔG°′ of reaction 1 is positive and reaction 2 is negative. The ΔG°′ of both reactions 1 and 2 are negative.

Why Glucose + Pi Needs ATP Hydrolysis

Q.33 Given that ΔG = ΔH − TΔS, with reference to it, identify the wrong statement: In exergonic reaction, ΔG is negative. When ΔG is zero, the system is at equilibrium. ΔG must be positive for the reaction to be spontaneous. In exergonic reaction ΔG is always equals to 1.

Wrong Statement ΔG = ΔH − TΔS Exergonic Reaction

Q.32 Which group of the antibiotics inhibit translation by binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit? 1. Erythromycin. Chloramphenicol 2. Kanamycin, Neomycin 3. Vancomycin, Cycloserine 4. Kanamycin, Vancomycin

Antibiotics Inhibit Translation Binding

Q.31 The branch of biology that involves creation of small living organisms like mycoplasma etc. is called as : l. Biotechnology 2. Systems biology 3. Chemical biology 4. Synthetic biology

Branch of Biology Creating Small Living Organisms

Q.30 The acid - fastness of mycobacteria is due to : 1. Presence of mycolic acids in cell wall 2. Presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall 3. Presence of glycoproteins in cell wall 4. Presence of glycolipids in cell wall

 Acid-Fastness of Mycobacteria Due to

Q.29 Rifampicin inhibits I. Beta subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase 2. Beta subunit of prokaryotic DNA polymerase 3. All eukaryotic and prokaryotic polymerases 4. RNA dependent DNA polymerase

Rifampicin inhibits

Q.28 The amino acid in renal tubular cells that forms ammonia, which is finally excreted as NH4+ is: Aspartate Glutamate Asparagine Glutamine

Amino Acid in Renal Tubular Cells

Q.27 Which ofthe following are involved in buffering our blood system ? 1. Bicarbonate Phosphate buffers 2. Tris Hel buffer 3. MOPs buffer 4. Calcium/ Magnesium buffers

Buffers in Blood System

Q.26 Gmelin's test and Van den Bergh reaction are used for : I. identification of bilimbin in serum and urine. respectively. 2. identification of in serum only, 3. identification of bilimbin in urine only. 4. identification of bilimbin in urine and serum, respectively.

Gmelin’s Test and Van den Bergh Reaction

Q.25 The most abundant enzyme on Earth is l. Carbonic anhydrase 2. Ribulose l, 5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase. 3. Acetylcholine esterase 4. Urease

Most Abundant Enzyme on Earth

Q.24 Identifr the statement about Penicillin. I. It is an m•eversible inhibitor 2. It targets glycopeptide transpeptidase 3. It consists of a beta-lactam ring plus proline 4. It forms covalent bond with active site serme

Penicillin Mechanism

Q.23 Km of an enzyme-catalysed reaction is: Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is half of the maximum. Product concentration at which reaction rate is half of the maximum. Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is double of the maximum. Maximum kinetic constant.

Km of Enzyme-Catalysed Reaction

Q.22 The catalytic efficiency of an enzyme refers to: Kcat Km Kcat / Km Km / Kcat

Catalytic Efficiency of Enzyme

Q.21 Find the odd one among the following: James Sumner → Urease Holoenzyme → Functional enzyme plus coenzyme and/or metal ion Apoenzyme → Enzyme + prosthetic group Hexokinase → Mg2+ dependent

James Sumner Urease vs Enzyme Definitions

Q.20 During translation, the directionality of polypeptide synthesis is ? 1. C-tenninal to N-terminal direction. 2. N-tenninal to 3' direction. 3. 5' to C-terminal direction. 4. N-tenninal to C-terminal direction.

Directionality of Polypeptide Synthesis

Q.19 What are the possible number of reading frames in any given double stranded DNA sequence: 6 3 9 2

Possible Number of Reading Frames

Q.18 DNA photolyases are the enzymes that convert: Pyrimidine dimers to monomers with FADH2 as cofactor. Pyrimidine monomers to dimers with FADH2 as cofactor. Pyrimidine monomers to dimers with NADH2 as cofactor. Pyrimidine monomers to trimers.

DNA Photolyases

Q.17 Given below is the triple nature of codon, the possible permutation of four bases (A, G, T, C) is: 43 4 × 3 34 44

Triple Nature of Codon

Q.16 Which of the following mutations is least deleterious in a genome : 1. Missense mutation 2. Non-sense mutation 3. Silent mutation 4. Violent mutations

Which Mutation Least Deleterious in Genome

Q.15 An oxyhemoglobin molecule contains ? l. Protein + heme with iron + CO2 2. Protein + Chlorophyll with magnesium +02 3. Lipid + Sugar + 02 4. Heme with iron + 02 + Protein

Oxyhemoglobin Molecule Contains

Q.14 Diabetes is a : 1. Genetic disorder 2. Metabolic disorder 3. Genetic and metabolic disorder 4. Chromosomal disorder and digestive disorder

Diabetes is a Metabolic Disorder

Q.13 The two common antioxidants that also act as pro-oxidants in biological systems are l. Ascorbate and Uric acid 2. Ascorbate and Polyphenols 3. Beta carotene and Uric acid 4. Ascorbate and Beta carotene

Antioxidants Acting as Pro-Oxidants

Q.12 The complementary sequence for the DNA stretch 'GATCAATCGAACT, would be 1. CTAGTTAGCTTGA 2. CTAGWTCGUUCT 3. AGTTCGATTGATC 4. AGUUCGAUUGAUC

DNA Complementary Sequence

Q.11 Watson and Crick base pairing is ? 1. Hydrogen bonding in a single DNA strand. 2. Non-covalent hydrogen bonding between two DNA strands. 3. Van der Waal's forces between bases. 4. Photphodiester bonds between nitrogenous bases of opposite strands

Watson and Crick Base Pairing

Q.10 A phosphodiester bond fonns : 1. Polypeptides 2. Polynucleotides 3. Lipoproteins 4. Oligomers of carbohydrates and lipids

Phosphodiester Bond Forms Polynucleotides

Q.9 Find the wrong one out - I. Nucleotide minus phosphoryl group is nucleoside 2. Purines and pyrimidines are double and single ring compounds. respectively. 3. Purines and pyrimidines are linked to sugars by a peptidoglycan bond. 4. Adenosine and Uridine are ribonucleosides.

Nucleotide Nucleoside Purines Pyrimidines Adenosine Uridine

Q.8 Which of the following statement is incon•ect ? I. Ramachandran plot is related to protein structure. 2. Watson and Crick discovered the stmcture of DNA. proteins and RNA 3. Calvin cycle inccnporates all the carbon backbone of biomolecules. 4. Both 2 and 3

Which Statement is Incorrect?

Q.7 If molecular weight of a protein is gm per mole. would be the number of amino acids in the protein. assuming mean molecular weight of an amino acid to be 110 gm per mole ? 1. 2200 2. 2000 3. 3300 4. 200

Protein Molecular Weight Number

Q.6 One of the following is not related to enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) l. Monoclonal and Polyclonal antibodies 2. Antigen and Coupling enzyme 3, Electrophoresis 4. Secondaty antibody

Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay ELISA

Q.5 In spectrophotometric measurement of proteins. which of the amino acids contribute the maximum? 1. Tyrosine. Phenylalanine, Tryptophan 2. Tyrosine, Serine, Threonine 3. Phenylalanine, Alanine. Leucine 4. Histidine. Proline, Twptophan

Spectrophotometric Measurement of Proteins

Q.4 Size exclusion chromatography or gel filtration chromatography separates proteins based on : I. Stokes radii 2. Molecular weight and shape 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Colour

Size Exclusion Chromatography Separates Proteins

Q.3 Mitochondria is involved in - l. Oxidative phosphorylation and Beta oxidation 2. Independent protein synthesis 3. Both (1) and (2) 4. Digestion of lipids and proteins

 Mitochondria Functions

Q.2 Which of the following cellular organelle is called as digestive tract of the cell ? I. Golgi apparatus 2. Peroxisomes 3. Nucleus 4. Lysosomes

Cellular Organelle Called Digestive Tract of the Cell

Q.1 The largest membranous cellular organelle is : l. Mitochondria 2. Peroxisomes 3. Nucleus 4. Endoplasmic reticulum

Largest Membranous Cellular Organelle

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