Q.105. In Drosophila, the red eye phenotype ( W ) is dominant over the recessive white eye mutant (w). In a mixed population of red and white eye flies of 10,000 individuals, 3,600 flies were white eyed. The percentage of the heterozygous red eye flies in this population is ____ .

Drosophila Eye Color Genetics

Q.104. The graph below shows the activity of enzyme pepsin in the presence of inhibitors aliphatic alcohols (P) or N-acetyl-1-phenylalanine (Q). Which ONE of the following represents the nature of inhibition by P and Q , respectively? (A) Non-competitive and competitive (B) Competitive and non-competitive (C) Non-competitive and uncompetitive (D) Competitive and uncompetitive

Pepsin Enzyme Inhibition

Q.103. Match the proteins in Column I with the organs in which they are maximally expressed in Column II. Column I P. Keratin Q. Surfactants R. Pro-carboxypeptidase S. Albumin Column II (i) Liver (ii) Pancreas (iii) Lung (iv) Skin (A) P-(iv), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(ii) (B) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) (C) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i) (D) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)

Keratin Surfactants Pro-Carboxypeptidase Albumin Organ Expression Matching

Q.102. Match the household insect vectors in Column I with their associated diseases in Column II.  Column I P. Kissing bug (Hemiptera) Q. Sand fly (Diptera) R. Deer fly (Diptera) S. Oriental rat flea (Siphoneptera) Column II (i) Bubonic plague (ii) Tularemia (iii) Chagas disease (iv) Kala azar (A) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i) (B) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iv) (C) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii) (D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

Household Insect Vectors and Diseases

Q.101. Which ONE of the following graphs represents the relationship between ventricular enddiastolic volume and cardiac output in a healthy adult individual at rest (solid line) and upon exercise (dotted line)?

Cardiac Output vs Ventricular End-Diastolic Volume

Q.100. Match the following digestive enzymes in Column I with their respective functions in Column II. Column I P. Erepsin R. Pepsin Q. Steapsin S. Enterokinase Column II (i) converts proteins to peptides (ii) activates trypsinogen to trypsin (iii) converts fat into fatty acid and glycerol (iv) converts polypeptides to amino acids (A) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i) (B) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii) (C) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii) (D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

Digestive Enzymes Matching

Q.99. Match the following components listed in Column I with their respective organs in Column II Column I P. Endolymph Q. Vitreous humour R. Vas deferens S. Corpus luteum Column II (i) Testes (ii) Ear (iii) Ovary (iv) Eye (A) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii) (B) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii) (C) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii) (D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

Endolymph Vitreous Humour Vas Deferens Corpus Luteum

Q.98. Match the following genetic disorders in Column I with associated typical chromosomal changes mentioned in Column II Column I P. Klinefelter syndrome Q. Down syndrome R. Turner syndrome S. Cri du chat syndrome Column II (i) 45, XO (ii) 5 p minus (iii) 47, XXY (iv) Trisomy 21 (A) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i) (B) P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iii) (C) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i) (D) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)

Klinefelter Syndrome to Cri du Chat

Q.97. Match the following subcellular organelles in Column I with associated functions in Column II Column I P. Nucleolus Q. Peroxisomes R. Endoplasmic reticulum S. Golgi bodies Column II (i) Glycoprotein biosynthesis (ii) Oxidation of fatty acids and amino acids (iii) Protein trafficking (iv) Ribosome biogenesis (A) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iv) (B) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv) (C) P-(iv), Q-(ii), R-(i), S-(iii) (D) P-(ii), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(iv)

Subcellular Organelles Match

Q.96. Tarantulas and mosquitoes both belong to the phylum Arthropoda. Which ONE of the following represents the correct number of legs in them respectively? (A) 6 and 6 (B) 6 and 8 (C) 8 and 8 (D) 8 and 6

Tarantulas and Mosquitoes Legs

Q.95. Which ONE of the following glial cells is NOT derived from the ectoderm? (A) Astrocytes (B) Microglial cells (C) Oligodendrocytes (D) Ependyma

Which Glial Cell Is Not Ectoderm-Derived?

Q.94. Which ONE of the following phyla have choanocytes? (A) Ctenophora (B) Nematoda (C) Cnidaria (D) Porifera

Which Phylum Has Choanocytes?

Q.93. "Round dance" is performed by forager bees to indicate the distance between a food source and their colony. Which ONE of the following best represents this distance? (A) 45 meters (B) 450 meters (C) 1000 meters (D) More than 2000 meters

Honey Bee Round Dance Distance

Q.92. The genomes of both human and Drosophila code for an amylase that acts on the same substrate. However, the sequence of nucleotides in the genes encoding the two is dissimilar. This is an example of which ONE of the following types of evolution? (A) Neutral (B) Directional (C) Convergent (D) Divergent

Convergent Evolution Example

Q.91.Visual signal transduction cascade is activated by rhodopsin and involves degradation rather than synthesis of which ONE of the following second messenger molecules? (A) cAMP (B) IP3 (C) cGMP (D) DAG

Visual Signal Transduction

Q.90.Transitional epithelia is found in which ONE of the following organs? (A) Liver (B) Lung (C) Brain (D) Urinary bladder

Where is Transitional Epithelium Found?

Q.89. Which ONE of the following is the precursor molecule for corticosteroids? (A) Androgen (B) Estrogen (C) Pregnenolone (D) Mineralocorticoids

Precursor Molecule for Corticosteroids

Q.88. Which ONE of the following is NOT a site for in situ conservation? (A) Biosphere reserve (B) Wild life sanctuary (C) Zoological garden (D) Biodiversity hotspot

In Situ Conservation

Q.87. Which ONE of the following techniques can be used for detecting the subcellular localization of serotonin receptor in intact cells? (A) Immunoelectron microscopy (B) SDS-PAGE (C) Fluorescence in-situ hybridization (D) Differential centrifugation

Serotonin Receptor Localization in Intact Cells

Q.86. Which ONE of following leucocytes is phagocytic and has clear cytoplasm? (A) Eosinophil (B) Monocyte (C) TH-lymphocyte (D) Basophil

Phagocytic Leukocytes with Clear Cytoplasm

Q.85. A continuous bacterial culture carried out in a chemostat is set to a flow rate of 𝟒𝟎𝐦𝐥/𝐡𝐫. The culture volume is equivalent to that of a cubical container having 10 cm sides. The dilution rate (in 𝐡𝐫−𝟏, rounded off to two decimal places) of this system is ____ .

Calculate Chemostat Dilution Rate

Q.84. 𝐀𝟏𝟎𝟎𝝁𝐥 aliquot ( 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 dilution) of the bacterial culture plated on the nutrient agar gave 4 colonies. The bacterial stock concentration (in million cells /𝐦𝐥, rounded off to one decimal place) is ____

Bacterial Stock Concentration

Q.83. A bacterial culture has a generation time of 34 minutes. The time taken (in minutes, rounded off to two decimal places) for the 𝐎𝐃𝟓𝟓𝟎 of this exponentially growing culture to increase from 0.25 to 0.85 is ____ . Assume that 𝐎𝐃𝟓𝟓𝟎 has a linear relationship with the cell density.

Bacterial Culture Growth

Q.82. A bacterial culture containing 𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓 live cells was exposed to a newly developed sterilizing agent. After 30 minutes of exposure, 3 live cells remained in culture. The decimal reduction time (in minutes) for the new agent is ____ .

Decimal Reduction Time in Bacterial Sterilization

Q.81. Which one of the following is an example of substrate level phosphorylation? (A) Glucose to Glucose 6-phosphate (B) Fructose 6-phosphate to Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (C) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate (D) 2-phosphoglycerate to Phosphoenolpyruvate

Substrate Level Phosphorylation Example

Q.80. An example of a differential and selective medium in which colonies of Gram-negative bacteria produce large amounts of acidic products and appear green with a metallic sheen is (A) Blood agar (B) EMB agar (C) MacConkey agar (D) Mannitol salt agar

Differential and Selective Media in Microbiology

Q.79. Which one of the following statements about control of microbial growth is NOT correct? (A) Nonionizing radiation leads to thymine dimers formation in DNA (B) Spirochetes and mycoplasma can pass through membrane filters ( 0.22 −0.45𝜇 m ) (C) Use of high concentration of salts and sugars to preserve food is a chemical method of microbial control (D) Thermoduric bacteria can survive pasteurization

Control of Microbial Growth

Q.78. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]. Assertion [a]: Diphtheria exotoxin is an example of A-B type toxin. Reason [r]: The A component of the toxin is released from the host cell while the B component inhibits protein synthesis and kills the host cell. (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] (B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] (C) Both [a] and [r] are false (D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Diphtheria Exotoxin A-B Toxin

Q.77. Match the process involved in nitrogen or sulfur cycle in Group I with the corresponding microbe in Group II. Group I P. Denitrification Q. Nitrogen fixation by free-living microbe R. Oxidation of H2 S to sulfur S. Nitrogen fixation by a symbiotic microbe (A) P− 2, Q − 3, R− 4, S − 1 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (C) P − 3, Q − 4, R− 1, S − 2 (D) P − 3, Q −1, R− 2, S −4 Group II 1. Azotobacter 2. Beggiatoa 3. Pseudomonas 4. Rhizobium

Nitrogen Sulfur Cycle Microbes Matching

Q.76. Digestion of an immunoglobulin G (IgG) molecule with pepsin will NOT (A) generate a bivalent antigen binding fragment (B) generate monovalent antigen binding fragments (C) destroy the complement binding site (D) cleave the heavy chain of IgG molecule

Pepsin Digestion of IgG

Q.75. A 𝟐𝟓𝟎𝝁𝐥 of bacteriophage stock containing 𝟖 × 𝟏𝟎𝟖 phages /𝐦𝐥 is added to 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝝁𝐥 of E. coli culture containing 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎𝟖 cells /𝐦𝐥. The multiplicity of infection is ____ .

Bacteriophage MOI Calculation

Q.74. Match the cellular organelle in Group I with its function in Group II Group I P. Golgi apparatus Q. Nucleolus R. Peroxisome S. Proteasome (A) P− 3, Q − 2, R− 1, S − 4 (B) P − 3, Q − 4, R− 1, S −2 (C) P − 1, Q − 2, R− 4, S − 3 (D) P − 3, Q −1, R− 4, S −2 Group II 1. Lipid degradation 2. Protein degradation 3. Protein sorting 4. Ribosomal RNA synthesis

Cellular Organelles Functions Matching

Q.73. Which one of the following conditions favors maximum expression of lac operon genes in E. coli? (A) Glucose-low, lactose-low, cAMP-high (B) Glucose-high, lactose-low, cAMP-high (C) Glucose-low, lactose-high, cAMP-high (D) Glucose-high, lactose-high, cAMP-low

Lac Operon Maximum Expression

Q.72. Which one of the following will increase the resolution of a light microscope? (A) Decreasing the numerical aperture of the objective lens (B) Using an objective lens with a longer working distance (C) Using a medium of higher refractive index (D) Increasing the wavelength of light

Increase Light Microscope Resolution

Q.71. Which one of the following does NOT provide three-dimensional images? (A) Atomic force microscopy (B) Confocal scanning laser microscopy (C) Differential interference contrast microscopy (D) Phase-contrast microscopy

Phase Contrast vs 3D Imaging Microscopes

Q.70. Which one of the following diseases is treated by a neuraminidase inhibitor? (A) Chickenpox (B) Polio (C) Influenza (D) Japanese encephalitis

Neuraminidase Inhibitor

Q.69. Shifting a Saccharomyces cerevisiae culture from fermentative to aerobic respiratory mode will (A) decrease carbon dioxide production (B) increase alcohol production (C) increase glucose consumption (D) decrease ATP generation per mole of glucose

Saccharomyces Cerevisiae

Q.68. Choose the correct taxonomical hierarchy among the following: (A) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Domain (B) Species, Genus, Order, Class, Family, Phylum, Domain (C) Species, Genus, Order, Family, Class, Phylum, Domain (D) Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Phylum, Domain

Correct Taxonomical Hierarchy

Q.67. The antibacterial trimethoprim is an inhibitor of (A) dihydrofolate reductase (B) dihydropteroate synthetase (C) 𝑁5, 𝑁𝐼0-methenyl tetrahydrofolate synthetase (D) serine hydroxymethyl transferase

Trimethoprim Mechanism

Q.66. The technique of microbial "pure culture" was pioneered by (A) Edward Jenner (B) Louis Pasteur (C) Robert Hooke (D) Robert Koch

Robert Koch’s Legacy Explained

Q.65. A double homozygous mutant develops green and wrinkled seeds. When it was crossed with a true-breeding plant having yellow and round seeds, all the F1 plants developed yellow and round seeds. After self-fertilization of F1, the calculated percentage probability of plants with green and wrinkled seeds in the F2 population (round off to 2 decimal places) is ____

Probability of Green Wrinkled Seeds

Q.64. Selection markers and the corresponding genes used in plant genetic engineering are given below Selection Marker P. Kanamycin Q. Hygromycin R. Bialaphos S. Mannose Gene i. ℎ𝑝𝑡𝐼𝑉 ii. bar iii. pmi iv. nptII Choose the CORRECT combination (A) P-ii, Q-i, R-iv, S-iii (B) P-iv, Q-ii, R-i, S-iii (C) P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-iii (D) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i

Plant Selectable Marker Genes and Their Selection Agents

Q.63. Arrange the following 'water reservoirs of earth' in decreasing order of water volume P- Streams Q- Groundwater R- Glaciers S - Lakes and inland seas (A) R-Q-S-P (B) P-Q-R-S (C) S-P-R-Q (D) R-P-Q-S

Water Reservoirs of Earth

Q.62. Match the following ecological terms with their appropriate definitions Term                                                      Definition P. Niche                                            i. Position of a species in food chain Q. Biotas                                          ii. Place of a living organism in the biotic environment and its relations to food and enemies R. Trophic level                              iii. Physical environment of an organism S. Habitat                                         iv. Totality of organisms (flora and fauna) in a given place or region (A) P-i, Q-ii, R-iv, S-iii (B) P-ii, Q-iv, R-i, S-iii (C) P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii (D) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii, S-iv

Ecology Matching Quiz

Q.61. Match the following alkaloids with their uses and source plants in CORRECT combination Alkaloid                                                            Use                                           Source plant P. Morphine                                                   i. Anti-cancer                           1. Cinchona officinalis Q. Quinine                                                      ii. Analgesic                              2. Catharanthus roseus R. Atropine                                                     iii. Anti-cholinergic                 3. Papaver somniferum S. Vinblastine                                                 iv. Anti-malarial                      4. Hyoscyamus niger (A) P-ii-3, Q-iv-1, R-iii-4, S-i-2 (B) P-ii-1, Q-i-3, R-iv-4, S-iii-2 (C) P-ii-2, Q-iv-1, R-i-4, S-iii-3 (D) P-iii-4, Q-ii-1, R-iv-3, S-i-2

Alkaloids: Sources, Uses and Correct Matching

Q.60. Select the CORRECT combination by matching the disease, causal organism and the affected plant. Disease P. Stem rust Q. Wart disease R. Tikka/leaf spot S. Downey mildew Causal organism i. Cercospora personata ii. Plasmopara viticola iii. Synchytrium endobioticum iv. Puccinia graminis Affected plant 1. Wheat 2. Ground nut 3. Potato 4. Grape 5. Apple 6. Rice (A) P-iv-1, Q-iii-3, R-i-2, S-ii-4 (B) P-ii-1, Q-i-6, R-iv-4, S-iii-2 (C) P-iii-1, Q-iv-3, R-i-5, S-ii-4 (D) P-iv-1, Q-ii-3, R-iii-2, S-i-5

Correct Matching with Causal Organisms and Plants

Q.59. Match the plant part (Group I) with the product obtained (Group II) and the representative plant species (Group III) in CORRECT combination Group I P. Bark Q. Leaf R. Flower S. Fruit Group II i. Tannins ii. Saffron iii. Codeine iv. Aromatic oil Group III 1. Papaver somniferum 2. Camellia sinensis 3. Cinnamomum zeylanicum 4. Crocus sativus (A) P-ii-1, Q-i-3, R-iv-2, S-iii-4 (B) P-ii-1, Q-i-2, R-iv-4, S-iii-3 (C) P-ii-2, Q-iv-3, R-i-4, S-iii-1 (D) P-iv-3, Q-i-2, R-ii-4, S-iii-1

Medicinal Plant Parts and Products

Q.58. In relation to Agrobacterium mediated genetic engineering in plants, match the following in CORRECT combination Gene name P. virA Q. virB R. virD1 S. vir 𝐺 Function i. Acetosyringone receptor ii. Conjugal tube formation iii. Topoisomerase iv. Inducer of all vir operons v. Octopine synthesis (A) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-v (B) P-ii, Q-i, R-iii, S-v (C) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv (D) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii, S-iv

Agrobacterium Vir Genes Matching

Q.57. Match the following in CORRECT combination between Group I and Group II with reference to the agents that interfere with oxidative phosphorylation Group I P. Cyanide Q. Antimycin A R. Aurovertin S. 2,4-Dinitrophenol (A) P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-iii (B) P-v, Q-i, R-iii, S-iv (C) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-v (D) P-v, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv Group II i. Blocks electron transfer from cyt 𝑏 to cyt 𝑐1 ii. Inhibits F1 iii. Uncoupling of phosphorylation from electron transfer iv. Inhibits cytochrome oxidase v. Inhibits K +ionophore

Agents That Inhibit Oxidative Phosphorylation

Q.56. Group I, Group II and Group III represent enzyme, product of the enzymatic reaction, and metabolic process, respectively. Group I P. Hexokinase Q. Fumarase R. PEP Carboxylase S. Glycolate oxidase Group II i. Malate ii. Glucose 6-P iii. Hydrogen peroxide iv. Cinnamic acid v. Oxaloacetic acid Group III 1. Glycolysis 2. Photorespiration 3. TCA cycle 4. Photosynthesis The CORRECT combination for Group I, Group II and Group III is (A) P-ii-1, Q-iv-3, R-v-2, S-iii-4 (B) P-ii-1, Q-i-3, R-v-4, S-iii-2 (C) P-ii-2, Q-v-3, R-i-4, S-iii-1 (D) P-iii-1, Q-i-3, R-iv-4, S-ii-2

Enzymes, Their Products and Pathways

Q.55. An mRNA of a nuclear encoded plant gene, DSH 20 has an ORF of 1353 nucleotides. Provided that average molecular weight of amino acid is 110 Dalton (Da), calculated molecular weight of DSH20 protein in kDa (round off to 1 decimal place) is ____

Calculate DSH20 Protein Molecular Weight

Q.54. Which of the following chemicals is used for doubling of chromosome numbers during production of 'doubled haploids' in crop plants? (A) Hygromycin (B) Kanamycin (C) Colchicine (D) Glufosinate

Colchicine for Chromosome Doubling in Doubled Haploids

Q.53. 'Bakanae' disease or 'foolish seedling' disease is caused by (A) Fungus (B) Bacterium (C) Virus (D) Mycoplasma

Bakanae Disease Caused by Fungus

Q.52. The oleo-gum resin asafoetida (hing) is obtained from the cut surface of (A) Stem (B) Root (C) Leaf (D) Fruit

Asafoetida Hing Source

Q.51. Among the following, which best describes an organism that lives at the expense of other organisms, harmful but usually not killing? (A) Predator (B) Symbiotic (C) Prey (D) Parasite

Parasite Definition Biology

Q.50. In a typical green plant, the first stable product of Calvin cycle is (A) Oxaloacetic acid (B) Succinic acid (C) Maleic acid (D) 3-Phosphoglyceric acid

3-Phosphoglyceric Acid Explained

Q.49. 2-Methoxy-3, 6-dichlorobenzoic acid belongs to which class of plant growth regulators? (A) Synthetic auxin (B) Synthetic cytokinin (C) Strigolactone (D) Brassinosteroid

2-Methoxy-3,6-Dichlorobenzoic Acid

Q.48. In a typical angiosperm under natural condition, primary meristems are usually established during (A) Gametogenesis (B) Embryogenesis (C) Vegetative phase development (D) Secondary growth

Primary Meristems in Angiosperms

Q.47. In natural condition, which of the following plants DOES NOT exhibit anomalous secondary growth? (A) Rice (B) Aloe (C) Yucca (D) Dracaena

Anomalous Secondary Growth in Plants

Q.46. Indefinite stamen is a characteristic feature of which of the following plant families? (A) Malvaceae (B) Apocynaceae (C) Poaceae (D) Brassicaceae

Indefinite Stamen Characteristic Plant Family

Q.45. The enzyme glucose isomerase catalyzes the inter-conversion of glucose and fructose as shown. Glucose ⇄ Fructose The 𝚫𝐆𝟎′ for this reaction is zero 𝐤𝐜𝐚𝐥/𝐦𝐨𝐥. After adding glucose isomerase to a 0.12 M glucose solution and allowing the reaction to attain equilibrium, the final concentration of fructose in the reaction mixture will be ____ mM .

Glucose Isomerase Equilibrium

Q.44. An enzyme obeying Michaelis-Menten kinetics shows a reaction velocity (v) of 𝟏𝟎𝝁 𝐦𝐨𝐥/𝐦𝐢𝐧 when the substrate concentration [𝐒] equals its 𝐊𝐌. The maximal velocity 𝐕max for this enzyme is ____ 𝝁𝐦𝐨𝐥/𝐦𝐢𝐧 (correct to integer number). ( 𝐊𝐌 is Michaelis-Menten constant)

Michaelis-Menten Kinetics

Q.43. A PCR in a 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝝁 𝐋 reaction volume, containing two primers at a concentration of 𝟎. 𝟐𝝁𝐌 each, is set up to amplify a 250 base pair DNA fragment. Consider the average molecular weight of one base pair as 660 Da . If the primers are fully consumed by the end of the reaction, the amount of the final PCR product formed is ____ 𝝁𝐠 (rounded off to one decimal place).

PCR Product Yield Calculation

Q.42. The second pKa of phosphoric acid is 6.8. The ratio of 𝐍𝐚𝟐𝐇𝐏𝐎𝟒 to 𝐍𝐚𝐇𝟐𝐏𝐎𝟒 required to obtain a buffer of pH 7.0 is ____ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Phosphate Buffer Ratio

Q.41. A solution absorbs 𝟐𝟎% of the incident light in a cuvette of path length 1.0 cm . The amount of light transmitted by the same solution in a cuvette of 3.0 cm path length is ____ % (rounded off to one decimal place).

Beer-Lambert Law

Q.40. Polypeptides are either biosynthesized on the ribosomes using an mRNA template or chemically synthesized by the Merrifield's solid phase method. The correct directions of peptide synthesis are (A) C → N direction on the ribosomes and N → C direction on the solid phase (B) N → C direction on the ribosomes and C → N direction on the solid phase (C) N → C direction in both cases (D) C → N direction in both cases

Polypeptide Synthesis Directions

Q.39. The correct combination of glycosidic linkages present in glycogen is (A) 𝛼, 1 → 4 and 𝛼, 1 → 6 (B) 𝛼1 → 4 and 𝛽1 → 6 (C) 𝛼, 1 → 6 and 𝛽, 1 → 4 (D) 𝛼1 → 6 and 𝛽1 → 6

Glycogen Glycosidic Linkages Explained

Q.38. Match the items in Group I with the most appropriate items in Group II and choose the correct option. Group I                                Group II P. Integrin                          1. Phagocytosis in the neural tissue Q. Microglial cell              2. Antigen processing by cross-presentation R. TLR-7                             3. Single stranded RNA recognition S. Dendritic cell                 4. Binding of cells to endothelium (A) P − 2, Q −1, R− 3, S −4 (B) P − 4, Q − 1, R− 3, S −2 (C) P − 1, Q − 2, R− 3, S − 4 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

Match the Immunology Group I to Group II

Q.37. The prosthetic groups/cofactors involved in both 𝟏𝐞−and 𝟐𝐞−transfer in the mitochondrial electron transport chain are (A) NAD and NADP (B) NAD and FAD (C) Heme and FMN (D) Coenzyme Q and FMN

Mitochondrial Electron Transport

Q.36. One mole of a native protein upon N-terminal analysis yielded one mole each of Asp and Val. Therefore, the protein in its native state exists as a (A) Monomer (B) Homo-dimer (C) Hetero-dimer (D) Tetramer

Protein N-Terminal Analysis

Q.NO.35. Considering that the three pKas of histidine are pK1=1.8, pK2=9.2 and pKR=6.O, its isoelectric will be ____________ (rounded off to one decimal place).

Histidine Isoelectric Point Calculation

Q34. When one glucose unit from glycogen gets converted to lactate in the muscle, the net number of ATP molecules produced is ______.

Net ATP from Glycogen to Lactate in Muscle

Q.No 33.  Choose the correct order of molecules according to their ability to diffuse across a lipid bilayer. (A) CO₂ > H₂O > Glucose > RNA (B) RNA > Glucose > CO₂ > H₂O (C) H₂O > CO₂ > RNA > Glucose (D) Glucose > H₂O > CO₂ > RNA

Diffusion of Molecules Across Lipid Bilayer

Q.No 32.  A globular protein of molecular weight 50 kDa exists as a mixture of monomers and dimers in solution. The most appropriate technique for the separation of these two forms of the protein is (A) Thin layer chromatography (B) Ion exchange chromatography (C) Gel filtration chromatography (D) Paper chromatography

Gel Filtration Chromatography

Q. No 31. Binding of an antibody to its cognate antigen does NOT involve (A) Covalent bonds (B) Van der Waals forces (C) Electrostatic forces (D) Hydrogen bonds

 Binding of Antibody to Cognate Antigen

Q.No.30. Har Gobind Khorana and Marshall Nirenberg elucidated the genetic code by using a cell-free protein synthesizing system. It was töund that and poly(C) result in synthesis of poly(L-Phe) and poly(L-Pro) respectively. On the basis of these observations, which one of the following conclusions is correct? Codon CCG specifies L-Phe and codon AAA specifies L-Pro Codon GGG specifies L-Phe and codon UUU specifies L-Pro Codon CCC specifies L-Phe and codon UUU specifies L-Pro Codon UUU specifies L-Phe and codon CCC specifies L-Pro

Cell-Free Protein Synthesis Genetic Code

Q.29. The human major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is (A)Polygenic and monomorphic (B)Polygenic and polymorphic (C)Monogenic and polymorphic (D)Monogenic and monomorphic

 Human Major Histocompatibility Complex

Q.No.28. The reaction involved in the direct conversion of L-phenylalanine to L-tyrosine is (A) Hydroxylation (B) Decarboxylation (C) Transamination (D) Reduction

Direct Conversion of L-Phenylalanine to L-Tyrosine

Q. No27. Which one of the following bonds is NOT present in ATP? (A) Phosphoanhydride (B) N-Glycosidic (C) ?-Glycosidic (D) α-Glycosidic

Which Bond is NOT Present in ATP?

Q. No26. Which one of the following hormones initiates a signal cascade by directly binding to an intra-cellular receptor? (A) Insulin (B) Gonadotropin (C) Progesterone (D) Epinephrine

Progesterone Signal Cascade Explained

Q. No.25. At a given pressure, a substance is heated from 2000 K to 2600 K. If the entropy of the substance is 60 J K-1 mol-1, and is assumed to be constant over the given temperature range, then the change in the chemical potential (in kJ mol-1) of the substance is __________.

Change in Chemical Potential at Constant Pressure

Q24. The activation energy (Ea) estimated for a reaction from the Arrhenius equation is 21 kJ mol-1. The frequency factor is assumed to be independent of temperature. The ratio of the rate constants at 298 K and 260 K (rounded off to two decimal places) (Given: R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1) is _____

Activation Energy 21 kJ/mol

Q23. The standard potential E0cell for a cell reaction given below is +0.7 V. The standard reaction free energy ΔrG° for this cell is _______Kj mol-1 (correct up to two decimal places). (Given: Faraday constant, ( F = 96,500 C mo-1) Au3+(aq) + 3Ag(s) -> Au(s) + 3Ag+(aq)

Total Number of Possible Geometrical Isomers

Q.No.22. A molecule in solution crystallizes into two different crystal forms with rate constants of 0.02 s-1 and 0.13 s-1. If the crystallization is assumed to be under kinetic control, then half-life (in seconds), rounded off to one decimal place) of the molecule _________.

Crystal Polymorphism Half-Life Calculation

Q.No.21. Which one of the following hexoses will give an osazone that has a different melting point from that of the osazone obtained from D (+) glucose?

Which Hexose Gives Different Osazone from D-Glucose

Q20. In the reaction given below, choose the condition that gives an anti-Markovnikov's product. (A)  Peroxide / HCI (B) Aqueous mercuric acetate treatment (C) Diborane addition (D) Sulfuric acid addition

Anti-Markovnikov Product in Alkene Addition

Q.NO. 19 Given below are Newman projections of ethylene glycol and 1,2-difluoroethane about their respective C-C bonds. The most stable conformations (lowest energy) of ethylene glycol and 1,2-difluoroethane are (A) I and III respectively. (B)I and IV respectively. (C)II and III respectively. (D)II and IV respectively.

Newman Projections Explained

Q. No 18. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about the diborane molecule? (A) B−Ht bond is a two-center two-electron bond (Ht = terminal hydrogen). (B) B−Hb bond is a three-center two-electron bond (Hb = bridged hydrogen). (C) The B−Ht bond distance is 1.19 Å (terminal B−H bond). B−Hb bond distance (Hb = bridged hydrogen) is longer than B−Ht. (D) B−Ht bond is a two-center two-electron bond (Ht = terminal hydrogen).

Diborane Molecule

QN.17 Based on the molecular orbital theory, which of the following statements with respect to N₂, O₂ and O₂⁺ is correct? (a) Bond order of N₂⁺ is higher than that of N₂ whereas bond order of O₂ is lower than that of O₂⁺ (b) The unpaired electrons in N₂⁺ and O₂ are present in σ and π* orbitals, respectively. (c) The bond in N₂⁺ is shorter than in N₂, whereas bond in O₂ is shorter than that in O₂⁺. (d)Bond orders of N2 and 02 are higher than their corresponding cations.

Molecular Orbital Theory N₂ O₂ O₂⁺

Q.No. 16 The correct order of first ionization energies of He, N and O in their ground state is (A) He > O > N (B) O > N > He (C) N > O > He (D) N > He > O

Correct Order of First Ionization Energies

Q15. The standard enthalpy of reaction (in kJ mol-1) for obtaining three moles of H2(g) from atomic hydrogen in gas phase is ______. Given: Standard enthalpy of formation of atomic hydrogen in gas phase = 218 kJ mol-1

Standard Enthalpy of Reaction for H2

Q.NO. 14 The azimuthal quantum number (l) of an electron in the dz2 orbital of a copper atom (atomic number: 29) is _______.

Azimuthal Quantum Number

Q. No. 13 In naphthalene, the value of the integer "n" according to Hückel's rule of aromaticity is ______.

Naphthalene Hückel’s Rule Aromaticity

Q.No.12 The coordination complex which has a distorted octahedral structure is (Given: Atomic numbers V: 23, Mn: 25, Ni: 28, Cu: 29) (a) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (b) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (c) [V(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Cu(H2O)6]2+  

Distorted Octahedral Structure in Coordination Complexes

Q.No11. An aqueous solution contains a mixture of 10-M NaCl and 10-M HCl. (a) The solution is a buffer with pH less than 7.0 (b) The solution is a buffer with pH greater than 7.0 (c) The solution is not a buffer but its pH is less than 7.0  

Is 10M NaCl and 10M HCl Mixture a Buffer Solution?

Q10. The profit shares of two companies P and Q are shown in the figure. Ifthe two companies have invested a fixed and equal amount every year, then the ratio of the total revenue of company P to the total revenue of company Q, during 2013 - 2018 is _____. (A) 15:17 (B) 16:17 (C) 17:15 (D) 17:16

Profit Shares of Companies P and Q

Q. No9. For a Matrix M = [mij]; i,j =1,2,3,4, diagonal elements are all zero and mij = -mji The minimum number of elements required to fully specify the matrix __ A. 0 B. 6 C. 12 D. 16

Minimum Elements to Specify Skew-Symmetric

Q.NO. 8 The distance between Delhi and Agra is 233 km. A car P started travelling from Delhi to Agra and another car Q started from Agra to Delhi along the same road I hour after the car P started. The two cars crossed each other 75 minutes after the car Q started. Both cars were travelling at constant speed. The of car P was 10 kmfhr more than the speed of car Q. How many kilometers the car Q had travelled when the cars crossed each other? A) 66.6 B) 75.2 C) 88.2 D) 116.5

Delhi Agra Car Speed Distance Problem Solution

Q.NO. 7 P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are seated around a circular table. l. S is seated opposite to W, II. U is seated at the wcond place to the right of R. Ill. T is seated at the third place to the left of R. I V. V is a neighbour of S. Which Of the following must be true? A) P is a neighbour of R. B) Q is a neighbour of R. C) P is not seated opposite to Q. D) R is the left neighbour Of S.

Solving Circular Seating Arrangement Puzzle

Q.No. 6 Repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India (RBI) borrows money from (lends commercial banks), and Reverse repo is the rate at which RBI borrows money from commercial banks. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage? (a) Decrease in repo rate will increase cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks. (b) Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks. (c) Increase in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and decrease lending by commercial banks. (d) Decrease in repo rate will decrease cost of borrowing and increase lending by commercial banks.

Repo Rate Decrease Impact

Q.No. 5 The difference between the sum of the first N natural numbers and sum of the first N odd natural numbers is ______ (a) n2 - n (b) n2 + n (c) 2n2  - n (d) 2n2 + n

Difference Between Sum of First N Natural Numbers

Q4. Hit by floods, the kharif (summer) crops in various parts of the country have been affected. Officials believe that the former sown crops so that the kharif crops (June-July) recovered grain output of the country can be achieved. Helping that sown in July-August will help soil retain moisture a longer period. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the given passage? (a) Officials declare that the food-grain production target will be met due to good grains. (b) Officials want the food-grain production target to be met by the November-February period. (c) Officials feel that the food-grain production target cannot be met due to floods. (d) Officials hopes that the food-grain production target will be met due to a good rabi produce.

Kharif Crops Floods Rabi Recovery

Q3. Select the word that fits the analogy: Cover : Uncovered :: Associate : _____ (a) Unassociate (b) Disassociate (c) Unassociable (d) Inassociate

Cover Uncovered Associate Analogy

Q2. Despite a string of poor performances, the chances of K. L. Rahul's selection in the team are _____. (a) slim (b) bright (c) obvious (d) uncertain

K. L. Rahul Selection Chances Despite Poor Performances

Q1. Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award was conferred Rashtrapati Bhavan (the President's official residence) in New Delhi. (a) with attendance (b) on attendance (c) for attendance (d) to attendance

Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award Conferred

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