Category: CUET PG Zoology 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-3 PDF with Solutions

Category: CUET PG Zoology 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-3 PDF with Solutions

CUET PG Zoology 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-3 PDF with Solutions

Q.75 The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright-coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations. Based on the above context, answer the following questions: Some frogs such as poison dart frog exhibit bright coloration which serves as a warning signal for its predators. It is known as: Batesian mimicry Aposematism Cryptic coloration Camouflage

Poison Dart Frog Bright Coloration

Q.74 The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright-coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations. Based on the above context, answer the following questions: Nilgiri Tahr is an: Endangered species Critically endangered species Vulnerable species Least concern

Nilgiri Tahr IUCN Status

Q.73 The hill ranges of Western Ghats of India are rich in biodiversity with tropical evergreen and rain forests. The flora and fauna are unique to the place. Many animal species like Nilgiri Tahr and Lion-tailed macaque are endemic to this region. Many bright-coloured frogs are discovered from this region. We must preserve our biodiversity from pollution, human greed, habitat destruction for our future generations. Based on the above context, answer the following questions: Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Western Ghats of India is one of the biodiversity hotspots. Reason R: The criteria for categorisation as a biodiversity hotspot is high number of endemic species (at least 1500 species of vascular plants); the region must have lost 30% of its natural vegetation. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A A is correct but R is not correct A is not correct but R is correct

Western Ghats Biodiversity Hotspot

Q.72 In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1/S, the G2/M and M checkpoints. In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Based on the above context, answer the following questions: Choose the correct statement: Cyclin D2 accumulates during early G1 phase Cyclin E appears during S phase Cyclin B peaks during M phase Cyclin A appears during late G1 phase

Cyclin Expression Cell Cycle

Q.71 In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1/S, the G2/M and M checkpoints. In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Based on the above context, answer the following questions: Given below are two statements: Statement I: Continuously dividing cells do not exit the cell cycle but they proceed through G1, S, G2 and M phase. Statement II: Cancer cells are unable to enter G0 phase. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Cancer Cells G0 Phase

Q.70 In normal cells, progress through the cell cycle is tightly regulated and each step must be completed before the next step can begin. There are at least three distinct points in the cell cycle at which the cell monitors external signals and internal equilibrium before proceeding to the next stage. These are the G1/S, the G2/M and M checkpoints. In addition to regulating the cell cycle at the checkpoints, the cell controls progress through the cell cycle by means of two classes of proteins: cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). Based on the above context, answer the following questions: Event that occurs at G1/S checkpoint is: Cell monitors DNA synthesis and damage Cell monitors spindle formation Attachment to kinetochores Cell monitors size and DNA integrity

G1/S Checkpoint Event

Q.69 The gradient used in ultracentrifugation for fractionation of DNA is: CsCl NaCl Glucose Fructose

Ultracentrifugation DNA Gradient

Q.68 Autoclaving is used as a sterilisation technique. The conditions used for autoclaving are: 99° C and 20 Psi 105° C and 10 Psi 121° C and 15 Psi 100° C and 15 Psi

Autoclaving Conditions

Q.67 The following statements are related to sensory tissues of animals. Proprioceptors are commonly called ‘stretch receptors’ that respond to mechanically-induced changes. Certain flagellated protozoa like Euglena that contains chlorophyll possess a mass of bright red photoreceptor granules called stigma. ‘Neuromasts’ are the primary photoreceptors in sharks, some fishes and aquatic amphibians. Meissner's corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles primarily help to detect chemical stimulus in animals. Most reptiles possess Jacobson's (Vomeronasal) organs for olfactory reception. Choose the set of correct statements from the options given below: A, B and E only B, C and D only C, D and E only A, D and E only

Sensory Tissues of Animals

Q.66 In TCA cycle, succinyl CoA synthetase is involved in the conversion of: α-ketoglutaric acid to succinyl CoA Succinic acid to fumaric acid Succinyl CoA to succinic acid Succinic acid to α-ketoglutaric acid

TCA Cycle Reaction

Q.65 Arrange the major thematic events of Xenopus gastrulation from early to late stage. Epiboly of the ectoderm around the entire embryo. Extension of the body along anterior–posterior axis. Formation of bottle cells and internalisation of the endoderm and mesoderm. Cortical rotation and formation of grey crescent. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A → B → C → D B → C → D → A C → A → D → B D → C → A → B

 Xenopus Gastrulation Events

Q.64 Arrange the primates in order from oldest to recent in terms of evolution: Old world monkeys Orangutans Gibbons Gorillas Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B, A, C, D A, C, B, D B, C, A, D A, C, D, B

Primates Evolution Order

Q.63 Identify the correct statements: Tumor cells differ from normal cells by changes in the regulation of growth. Proto-oncogenes encode defective proteins. Tumor cells can display tumor-specific antigens/novel antigens. Several cytokines including IFN and TNF help to mediate tumor-cell killing. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, C and D only B, C and D only A, B and C only A, B and D only

Tumor Cells vs Normal Cells

Q.62 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: During gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from anode to cathode. Reason R: DNA is negatively charged. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A A is correct but R is not correct A is not correct but R is correct

DNA Gel Electrophoresis Movement

Q.61 The following statements are associated with human female reproductive physiology: The uterine cycle during menstruation includes follicular phase, ovulation and luteal phase. The degeneration of corpus luteum is called luteolysis. An increase in plasma progesterone level synchronises with the luteal phase. After oocyte maturation, ovulation takes place. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C, D only A, C, D only A, B, D only B, C, D only

Human Female Reproductive Physiology

Q.60 Proteins can be separated according to size by following techniques except: Isoelectric focusing SDS-PAGE Ion exchange chromatography Molecular exclusion chromatography Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A and B only B and C only C and D only A and C only

Proteins Separated by Size Techniques

Q.58 Match List I with List II LIST I Mechanism LIST II Intercellular Communication A. Direct Communication I. Blood stream B. Paracrine II. Gap junction C. Endocrine III. Extracellular fluid D. Synaptic transmission IV. Across synaptic cleft Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Intercellular Communication Mechanisms Matching

Q.59 Teratogens are: Environmental compounds that can alter development. Act at specific times when certain organs are forming. The teratogen class includes drugs, chemicals, viruses and radiations. Heavy metals such as zinc are teratogens but lead and mercury are not considered as teratogens. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B and D only A, C and D only A, B and C only A and D only

Teratogens Explained

Q.57 Following are the characteristics of Molluscs: Molluscs are protostomes, have coelom reduced to cavities surrounding heart, nephridia and gonads. Molluscs' members possess a head-foot, visceral mass, mantle and mantle cavity. The rasping organ consists of muscular belt with rows of posteriorly curved teeth. The molluscan body form in the cephalopod undergoes a 180° anti-clockwise twisting of visceral mass. Protostome characteristics for molluscs also include trochophore larvae, spiral cleavage and schizocoelous coelom formation. Choose the set with correct statements from the options given below: A, B and C only B, C and D only A, B and E only C, D and E only

Characteristics of Molluscs

Q.56 There are both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters. The inhibitory neurotransmitters from the following are: Glycine γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Norepinephrine Taurine Glutamate Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, C only B, E only A, B, D only B, C, E only

Inhibitory Neurotransmitters Glycine GABA

Q.55 Arrange the following taxonomic categories from lower to higher level: Family Class Kingdom Order Species Choose the correct answer from the options given below: E → D → A → B → C E → B → A → D → C E → A → B → D → C E → A → D → B → C

Taxonomic Categories from Lower to Higher Level

Q.54 Identify the sequence in the mechanism of local inflammatory response: Presence of pathogen at the site of injury Capillaries widen and become more permeable Mast cells release histamines Entry of anti-microbial peptides at the site of injury Signals released by immune cells attract neutrophils which digest the pathogen and heal the tissue Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C, D, E A, C, B, D, E B, A, C, D, E A, C, D, E, B

Mechanism of Local Inflammatory Response

Q.53 Choose the correct sequence involved in transcription and translation process in eukaryotes: mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome in cytosol RNA processing Transcription Peptide bond formation between amino acids Ribosome assembly Choose the correct answer from the options given below: C, B, A, E, D A, B, C, E, D B, C, A, D, E C, A, B, D, E

Correct Sequence of Transcription and Translation

Q.52 The flow of water in syconoid type of water canal system in sponges follows the course of: Osculum Spongocoel Radial canals Incurrent canals Dermal Ostia Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A → B → C → D → E E → D → C → B → A E → C → D → B → A A → B → D → C → E

Flow of Water in Syconoid Canal System

Q.51 Arrange the steps involved in cloning of gene into plasmid: Selection of confirmation of recombinant clones Ligation of the gene of interest and plasmid Amplification of the gene of interest using template DNA Transformation of bacterium using the recombinant plasmid Restriction endonuclease treatment of the suitable plasmid and gene of interest Choose the correct answer from the options given below: C, E, B, D, A E, D, C, A, B B, A, E, C, D C, B, A, D, E

Gene Cloning Plasmid Steps

Q.50 Match List I with List II LIST I Order of class Reptilia LIST II Representative animal A. Squamata I. Tortoise B. Crocodilia II. Tuatara C. Chelonia III. Gharial D. Rhynchocephalia IV. Monitor lizard Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-III A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Reptilia Orders Matching

Q.49 Match List I with List II LIST I Technique LIST II Application A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) I. Specific identification of DNA molecules B. Southern blotting II. Specific identification of proteins C. Northern blotting III. Cell-free amplification of DNA molecules D. Western blotting IV. Specific identification of RNA molecules Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I 2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III 3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

PCR Southern Northern Western Blotting

Q.48 Match List I with List II LIST I Cell Types LIST II Niches A. Brain (Neurons & Glia) I. Ventricular & Sub-ventricular zone B. Mesenchymal stem cells II. Bone marrow C. Kupffer cells III. Liver D. Hematopoietic stem cells IV. Adipose tissue, placenta, bone marrow Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

 Stem Cell Niches Brain Ventricular Zone

Q.47 Match List I with List II LIST I Biosphere Reserve LIST II State A. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve I. Orissa B. Simlipal Biosphere Reserve II. Tamil Nadu C. Manas Biosphere Reserve III. Sikkim D. Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve IV. Assam Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Biosphere Reserve-State Matching

Q.46 Match List I with List II LIST I Type of Epithelium LIST II Location A. Simple squamous epithelium I. Lining of kidney ducts and tubules B. Simple cuboidal epithelium II. Lining of blood capillaries C. Simple columnar epithelium III. Lining of oral cavity D. Stratified squamous epithelium IV. Lining of intestinal tract Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 3. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Simple Squamous Epithelium

Q.45 Match List I with List II LIST I Enzymes LIST II Functions A. DNA polymerase α (alpha) I. Base-excision DNA repair B. DNA polymerase β (beta) II. RNA/DNA primary initiation of DNA synthesis C. DNA polymerase γ (gamma) III. Mitochondrial DNA replication and repair D. DNA polymerase κ (kappa) IV. Translesion DNA synthesis Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

DNA Polymerase Alpha Beta Gamma Kappa Functions

Q.44 Match List I with List II LIST I Virus LIST II Disease A. H1N1 Virus I. Guillain Barre Syndrome B. Flavi virus II. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome C. Corona Virus III. Yellow Fever D. Zika Virus IV. Swine Flu Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

H1N1 Swine Flu Flavivirus

Q.43 Match List I with List II LIST I CD antigen LIST II Expression on cells A. CD4 I. MHC class I-restricted T-cells B. CD8 II. MHC class II-restricted T-cells C. CD19 III. All leukocytes D. CD18 IV. B-cells Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

CD4 CD8 CD19 CD18 Antigen Expression

Q.42 Given below are two statements: Statement I: A circadian rhythm cannot be entrained. Statement II: Hormone melatonin regulates circadian rhythms. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Circadian Rhythm Entrainment Melatonin Regulation

Q.41 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Parthenogenesis plays an important role in social organization in colonies of certain bees, wasps, and ants. Statement II: In bees, large number of males (drones) are produced parthenogenetically, whereas sterile female workers and reproductive females (queens) are produced sexually. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Parthenogenesis Social Organization

Q.40 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Spleen participates in the immune response against blood-borne pathogens. Statement II: The lymph node is a highly specialized primary lymphoid organ. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Spleen Immune Response

Q.39 Match List I with List II LIST I Steroid Hormone LIST II Site of synthesis A. Cortisol I. Kidney B. Aldosterone II. Adrenal – zona fasciculata C. Progesterone III. Adrenal – zona glomerulosa D. 1, 25-(OH)2D3 IV. Corpus luteum Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV 3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Steroid Hormones Synthesis Sites

Q.38 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter the citric acid cycle or combine with each other to form ketone bodies. Statement II: Fatty acids undergo beta-oxidation and the products enter glycolysis or combine to form glucose. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Fatty Acids Beta-Oxidation Products

Q.37 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Transduction is virus-mediated bacterial DNA-recombination. Statement II: Transduction is also used for bacterial gene linkage and gene mapping studies. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Transduction in Bacteria

Q.36 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Messenger RNA capping, polyadenylation and splicing are coupled to transcription in eukaryotes. Statement II: Transcription and translation are compartmentalized in prokaryotes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

mRNA Capping Polyadenylation

Q.35 Given below are two statements: Statement I: Sponges are the only major phylum that lack nerves. Statement II: The simplest nervous system occurs in platyhelminthes. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Sponges Lack Nerves

Q.34 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Salamanders belong to order Apoda of class Amphibia. Reason R: The order Apoda of class Amphibia includes elongated, limbless and burrowing creatures. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A A is correct but R is not correct A is not correct but R is correct

Salamanders Order Apoda Myth

Q.33 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with antibiotic resistance. Reason R: Plasmodium is dependent on Hexose monophosphate shunt and reduced glutathione for their optimum growth in RBCs. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A A is correct but R is not correct A is not correct but R is correct

G6PD Deficiency Antibiotic Resistance Myth

Q.32 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Monkeys and chimpanzees cannot mate in present day conditions. Reason R: Reproductive isolation is reversible. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A A is correct but R is not correct A is not correct but R is correct

Monkeys and Chimpanzees Cannot Mate

Q.31 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Treatment of immunoglobulin IgG with B-mercaptoethanol gives rise to two heavy chains and two light chains peptides on SDS-PAGE. Reason R: ß-mercaptoethanol breaks peptide bond at the site of disulphide linkage. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is not correct 4. A is not correct but R is correct

IgG B-Mercaptoethanol Treatment

Q.30 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Scaffolding proteins are non-histone chromosomal proteins. Reason R: Scaffolding proteins are abundant in lysine and Arginine. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is not correct 4. A is not correct but R is correct

Scaffolding Proteins Assertion-Reason

Q.29 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: The wing of a bird, forelimb of human and forelimb of lizard are homologous. Reason R: Organ's underlying similarity arises due to their derivation from common ancestors. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is not correct 4. A is not correct but R is correct

Homology Assertion-Reason

Q.28 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Scurvy is a disease due to deficiency of Vitamin C. Reason R: Seurvy is characterised by long digits and extensibility of joints. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is not correct 4. A is not correct but R is correct

Scurvy Assertion-Reason Analysis

Q.27 Match List I with List II LIST I Pathogen/Infective stage LIST II Mode of transmission A. Trichomonas vaginalis I. Aerial transmission B. Metacestodes of Echinococcus multilocularis II. Sexual transmission C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis III. Direct contact D. Lice and mites IV. Tropic transmission Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV 2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III 3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Pathogen Transmission Matching

Q.26 A population has 600 individuals, 150 of genotype AA, 300 of genotype Aa and 150 of genotype aa. What is the frequency of allele A? 1. 0.5 2. 0.4 3. 0.35 4.0.6

Allele A Frequency

Q.25 Cosmid vector is made up of: 1. Bacterial plasmid and lambda phage DNA 2. Lambda phage DNA and Bacterial Fertility factor 3. Bacterial fertility factor and bacterial plasmid 4. Yeast telomeres and Yeast ARS, DNA

Cosmid Vector Made Of

Q.24 The ribozyme that catalyses peptide bond formation during prokaryotic protein synthesis is: 1. 28S rRNA 2. 23S rRNA 3. 16S rRNA 4. 5.8S rRNA

Prokaryotic Ribozyme Catalyzing Peptide Bonds

Q.23 Which of the hominins first migrated out of Africa? 1. Homo ergaster 2. Homo habilis 3. Homo erectus 4. Ardipithecus ramidus

First Hominin Out of Africa

Q.22 The egg of birds and fishes have only one small area which is free of yolk and where division takes place. Such an egg is known as: 1. Telolecithal 2. Centrolecithal 3. Isolecithal 4. Mesolecithal

Bird & Fish Eggs

Q.21 Carina is: 1. A free-swimming, ciliated larva 2. A shield-like plate over dorsal part of body 3. A keeled sternum for insertion of flight muscles 4. A glue-secreting cell

Carina in Birds

Q.20 The first definitive evidence for the chromosomal theory of inheritance was provided by: 1. Gregor John Mendel 2. Sutton and Boveri 3. Thomas Hunt Morgan 4. Hugo De vries

Chromosomal Theory Evidence

Q.19 All of the following are amniotes except: 1. Birds 2. Mammals 3. Reptiles 4. Fish

Non-Amniote Among Vertebrates

Q.18 Which is the correct sequence of events in urine formation? 1. Filteration, secretion and reabsortpion 2. Secretion, reabsorption and filteration 3. Filteration, reabsorption and secretion 4. Reabsorption, filteration and secretion

Urine Formation Steps

Q.17 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Food chains are short. Reason R: There is a loss of 10% of energy at each trophic level In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A 2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A 3. A is correct but R is not correct 4. A is not correct but R is correct

Food Chains Short Due

Q.16 Teak is a dominant tree species of which of the following types of forests in India? 1. Tropical moist deciduous forest 2. Tropical thorn deciduous forest 3. Tropical Rain Forest 4. Temperate forest with grass lands

Teak in Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests

Q.15 In the course of evolution, first horses appeared in which period? 1. Eocene 2. Oligocene 3. Miocene 4. Pliocene

First Horses Appeared

Q.14 Calculate the value of median from the given data: 2.90, 3.57, 3.73, 2.98, 3.64, 3.75 3.30, 3.62, 3.76, 3.38, 3.66, 3.76 1. 3.505 2. 3.62 3. 3.63 4. 3.65

Median Calculation

Q.13 The world's only floating national park is situated in: 1. Mizoram 2. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Manipur 4. Meghalaya

World’s Only Floating National Park

Q.12 A lizard like reptile which is considered as a "Living fossil" is: 1. Komado dragon 2. Varonus 3. Sphenodon 4. Gekko

Living Fossil Lizard-Like Reptile

Q.11 Separation of two different alleles from each other during gamete formation in a heterozygote follows: 1. Law of unit factors 2. Law of segregation 3. Law of dominance 4. Law of independent assortment

Allele Separation Follows Law

Q.10 Hyaluronic acid is composed of: 1. D-Galactose and N-acetyl D-glucosamine 2. L-Iduronie acid and N-acetyl-D-galactosamine 3. D-Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl-D-galactosamine 4. D-Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl-D-glucosamine

Hyaluronic Acid Composition

Q.9 Neuroglia found in peripheral nervous system (PNS) contains the following cells: 1. Astrocytes 2. Schwann cells 3. Oligodendrocytes 4. Ependymal cells

Neuroglia in PNS

Q.8 The drug Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of: 1. Leukotrienes 2. Prostaglandins 3. Arachidonic acid 4. 17-eicosapentanoic Acid (EPA)

Aspirin Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis

Q.7 All human antibody types possess a proline-rich flexible 'hinge region' except: 1. IgA 2. IgG 3. IgE 4. IgD

Proline-Rich Hinge Region

Q.6 The anti-parallel nature of double standard DNA is due to: 1. Phosphodiester bonds 2. Hydrogen bonds 3. Disulphide bonds 4. Glycosidic bond

DNA Antiparallel Nature

Q.5 Which of the following event occurs during the Diplonema/Diplotene stage of meiosis? 1. Reduction in the number of chiasmata 2. Separation of the paired chromosomes except at the chiasmata 3. Crossing-over and recombination between homologous chromatids 4. Pairing of homologous chromosomes and synaptonemal complex formation

Diplotene Stage Meiosis

Q.4 Actinomycin D inhibits: 1. Transcriptional elongation in Eukaryotes 2. Translational elongation in prokaryotes 3. Transeriptional initiation in prokaryotes 4. Translational initiation in eukaryotes

Actinomycin D Inhibits

Q.3 Which cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of glycosphingolipids and glycoproteins inside the cell? 1. Peroxisomes 2. Glyoxysomes 3. Inner mitochondrial membrane 4. Golgi complex

Golgi Complex Synthesizes Glycosphingolipids and Glycoproteins

Q.2 To detect infection of SARS-CoV2 in humans, RT-PCR technique is used to quantify: 1. Surface proteins of SARS-CoV2 2. RNA of SARS-CoV2 3. Non-structural proteins of SARS-CoV2 4. Host DNA

RT-PCR Detects SARS-CoV-2 RNA

Q.1 Which of the following enzymes introduce negative supercoiling in prokaryotic DNA? Topoisomerase I Topoisomerase II Topoisomerase III Topoisomerase IV

Which Enzyme Introduces Negative Supercoiling

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IIT JAM / CUET- PG

IIT JAM / CUET- PG

Are you aspiring to crack the IIT JAM Biotechnology exam with flying colors? Choosing the right coaching institute is crucial for your success. Let's Talk Academy (LTA) has established itself as the best coaching institute for IIT JAM Biotechnology, helping students achieve their dreams through expert guidance, structured study material, and personalized mentorship.

CSIR UGC NET Life Science Course

CSIR UGC NET Life Science Course

Let's Talk Academy is the number one CSIR NET Life Science coaching in Jaipur for Life Science. At Let's Talk Academy, you can be sure to get the right coaching strictly in adherence to the CSIR NET Life Science course.  CSIR NET Life Science is an exam that requires in-depth knowledge, consistent practice, and the right guidance to crack. If you are looking for a place where you can get the best CSIR NET Life Science coaching, you are at the right place.

ICMR JRF Life Science

ICMR JRF Life Science

If you are serious about cracking the ICMR Life Science JRF exam, Let’s Talk Academy is your ultimate destination. Join now and take the first step toward a successful research career!