Category: CUET PG Zoology 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-1 PDF with Solutions

Category: CUET PG Zoology 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-1 PDF with Solutions

CUET PG Zoology 2023 Previous Year Question Papers Shift-1 PDF with Solutions

Based on the context given below, answer the following questions: DNA in eukaryotes is a double-helical structure with two anti-parallel strands intertwined equidistantly. The double-helical structure was deciphered by James Watson and Francis Crick on the basis of X-ray diffraction studies. The hydrophilic backbones of alternating sugar and phosphate groups are on the outside of the helix held together by phosphodiester bonds. The purine and pyrimidine bases of both the strands are stacked inside the double helix. Adenine binds with thymine with hydrogen bond and cytosine binds with guanine with hydrogen bond. The DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA. Messenger RNA is translated into protein in the cytoplasm. Q75.In a 1300 (base-pair) DNA, if number of adenine residues are 800, what is the number of Watson–Crick hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanine residues? 500 1000 1500 3000

Unlocking DNA Hydrogen Bonds

Based on the context given below, answer the following questions: DNA in eukaryotes is a double-helical structure with two anti-parallel strands intertwined equidistantly. The double-helical structure was deciphered by James Watson and Francis Crick on the basis of X-ray diffraction studies. The hydrophilic backbones of alternating sugar and phosphate groups are on the outside of the helix held together by phosphodiester bonds. The purine and pyrimidine bases of both the strands are stacked inside the double helix. Adenine binds with thymine with hydrogen bond and cytosine binds with guanine with hydrogen bond. The DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA. Messenger RNA is translated into protein in the cytoplasm. Q74.Consider a DNA segment : 5′ – GTAACCTACCG – 3′ 3′ – CATTGGATGGC – 5′ If the RNA polymerase transcribes the segment from left to right, the mRNA sequence would be 1. 5′ – CAUUGGAUGGC – 3′ 2. 5′ – GUAACCUACCG – 3′ 3. 5′ – CGGUAGGUUAC – 3′ 4. 5′ – GCCAUCCAAUG – 3′

DNA Segment Transcription to mRNA

Based on the context given below, answer the following questions: DNA in eukaryotes is a double-helical structure with two anti-parallel strands intertwined equidistantly. The double-helical structure was deciphered by James Watson and Francis Crick on the basis of X-ray diffraction studies. The hydrophilic backbones of alternating sugar and phosphate groups are on the outside of the helix held together by phosphodiester bonds. The purine and pyrimidine bases of both the strands are stacked inside the double helix. Adenine binds with thymine with hydrogen bond and cytosine binds with guanine with hydrogen bond. The DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA. Messenger RNA is translated into protein in the cytoplasm. Q73.X-ray diffraction experiment to analyze the structure of DNA was performed by James Watson and Francis Crick Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins Tom Cech and Sidney Altman Martha Chase and Alfred Hershey

X-ray Diffraction DNA Structure

Based on the context given below, answer the following questions: Glycine is most often used as a buffering agent in biochemical experiments. This diprotic amino acid has a pKa value of 2.4 owing to carboxyl group and 9.6 owing to amino group. Glycine can exist as a zwitterion which can exist in either protonated form (NH₃⁺) or as a free base (–NH₂) because of the reversible reaction: NH₃⁺ – CH₂ – COOH ⇌ NH₃⁺ – CH₂ – COO⁻ ⇌ NH₂ – CH₂ – COO⁻ Q72.Glycine is highly conserved amino acid because it allows polypeptide chain to make turns it exists as zwitterion its α-carbon is bonded to four different groups it induces polarity

Why Glycine is Highly Conserved Amino Acid

Based on the context given below, answer the following questions: Glycine is most often used as a buffering agent in biochemical experiments. This diprotic amino acid has a pKa value of 2.4 owing to carboxyl group and 9.6 owing to amino group. Glycine can exist as a zwitterion which can exist in either protonated form (NH₃⁺) or as a free base (–NH₂) because of the reversible reaction: NH₃⁺ – CH₂ – COOH ⇌ NH₃⁺ – CH₂ – COO⁻ ⇌ NH₂ – CH₂ – COO⁻ Q71.In 0.1 M solution of glycine at pH 9.0, what fraction of glycine has its amino group in –NH₃⁺ form? 4/5 1/5 4/6 5/6

Glycine Amino Group

Based on the context given below, answer the following questions: Glycine is most often used as a buffering agent in biochemical experiments. This diprotic amino acid has a pKa value of 2.4 owing to carboxyl group and 9.6 owing to amino group. Glycine can exist as a zwitterion which can exist in either protonated form (NH₃⁺) or as a free base (–NH₂) because of the reversible reaction: NH₃⁺ – CH₂ – COOH ⇌ NH₃⁺ – CH₂ – COO⁻ ⇌ NH₂ – CH₂ – COO⁻ Q70.The characteristic pH, at which the net electric charge is zero, achieved at 2.4 6.0 7.5 9.6

Glycine pH Net Electric Charge Zero

Q.69 Match List–I with List–II : List–I (Hormone/Factor) List–II (Role) (A) Erythropoietin (I) Enhancement of immune function (B) Platelet derived growth factor (II) Treatment of infertility (C) Chorionic gonadotropin (III) Stimulate formation of RBCs (D) Interleukin (IV) Stimulate wound healing Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A)–(III); (B)–(IV); (C)–(II); (D)–(I) (A)–(IV); (B)–(III); (C)–(II); (D)–(I) (A)–(IV); (B)–(III); (C)–(I); (D)–(II) (A)–(III); (B)–(IV); (C)–(I); (D)–(II)

Hormone-Factor Matching

Q.68 Match List–I with List–II : List–I (Scientists) List–II (Contribution) (A) Maxam-Gilbert (I) DNA polymerase isolation (B) Stanley Cohen (II) DNA sequencing (C) Kornberg (III) Genetic code (D) Har Gobind Khorana (IV) DNA cloning Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A)–(II); (B)–(III); (C)–(IV); (D)–(I) (A)–(IV); (B)–(III); (C)–(I); (D)–(II) (A)–(I); (B)–(II); (C)–(IV); (D)–(III) (A)–(II); (B)–(IV); (C)–(I); (D)–(III)

Maxam-Gilbert to Khorana

Q.67 In a PCR, the reaction tubes are incubated first at 94 °C for 3 minutes, at 58 °C for 1 minute and at 72 °C for 2 minutes.What is the sequence of processes happening inside the tubes containing DNA template, dNTPs and Taq DNA polymerase? Denaturation, elongation, annealing Annealing, denaturation, elongation Denaturation, annealing, elongation Annealing, elongation, denaturation

PCR Cycle Sequence

Q.66 Which one of the following methods can be used for detecting DNA-protein interaction? Southern blotting In-situ hybridization Chromatin immunoprecipitation Amplified fragment length polymorphism

Detecting DNA-Protein Interaction Methods

Q.65 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Archaeopteryx lithographica demonstrates phylogenetic relatedness between birds and reptiles. Reason (R) : Archaeopteryx lithographica was approximately the size of a crow with imprints of feathers, possessed beak-like jaws with small bony teeth set in sockets and a reptilian skeleton with a long bony tail. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Archaeopteryx Birds Reptiles Link

Q.64 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Four distinctive characteristics of phylum Chordata are notochord; single, dorsal, tubular nerve cord; pharyngeal pouches and postanal tail. Reason (R) : The distinctive characteristics of phylum Chordata remain unchanged throughout the life of these animals. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

 Chordata Characteristics Notochord Nerve Cord

Q.63 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Only a few specific strains of E. coli are routinely used in recombinant DNA technology. Reason (R) : E. coli divides rapidly under laboratory conditions than their native counterparts. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

E. coli Strains in Recombinant DNA Technology

Q.62 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Activated macrophages are more effective than resting ones in eliminating pathogens. Reason (R) : Activated macrophages show increased phagocytic activity and ability to activate T cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

 Activated Macrophages Pathogen Elimination

Q.61 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : DNA is a stable genetic material. Reason (R) : DNA is double-stranded only. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

 DNA is a Stable Genetic Material

Q.60 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : DNA fragments from any source can be cloned into a plasmid. Reason (R) : A plasmid can be transferred to other cells by gene transfer mechanism such as transformation and transduction. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

DNA Plasmid Cloning Assertion Reason

Q.59 HAT selection media used in monoclonal antibody production consist of hygromycin, ampicillin and tetracycline hypoxanthine, adenine and thymine hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thyroxine

HAT Selection Media Components

Q.58 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) : Assertion (A) : Gastrulation in frog begins at a point on the embryo surface called blastopore. Reason (R) : Hensen’s node is the functional equivalent of the dorsal lip of the amphibian blastopore. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Frog Gastrulation Assertion Reason

Q.57 Match List–I with List–II : List–I (Antibiotic) List–II (Mode of action) (A) Tetracycline (I) Prevents initiation of amino-acyl tRNA binding (B) Fusidic acid (II) Prevents ternary complex binding to ribosome (C) Macrolides (III) Prevents exit of polypeptide from ribosome (D) Kasugamycin (IV) Prevents EF-G dissociation Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (A)–(II); (B)–(IV); (C)–(I); (D)–(III) (A)–(II); (B)–(IV); (C)–(III); (D)–(I) (A)–(II); (B)–(III); (C)–(IV); (D)–(I) (A)–(II); (B)–(III); (C)–(I); (D)–(IV)

Antibiotic Modes of Action Matching

Q.56 Arrange the volumes in descending order: 1000 mL 2 dL 2000 µL 3 mL 10000 nL Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B, C, A, E, D C, B, D, E, A B, A, D, C, E A, B, D, C, E

Volume Units Descending Order

Q.55 Match List–I with List–II: List–I (Adaptation) List–II (Animal) (A) Echolocation (I) Canyon tree frog (B) Cryptic coloration (II) Poison dart frog (C) Aposematism (III) Skunks (D) Chemical defences (IV) Bats Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A)–(IV); (B)–(II); (C)–(I); (D)–(III) (A)–(I); (B)–(IV); (C)–(III); (D)–(II) (A)–(IV); (B)–(I); (C)–(III); (D)–(II) (A)–(IV); (B)–(I); (C)–(II); (D)–(III)

Animal Adaptations Matching

Q.54 Match List–I with List–II: List–I (Enzyme Class) List–II (Type of reaction catalysis) (A) Oxidoreductases (I) Cleavage of C–C, C–O, C–N or other bonds by elimination (B) Transferases (II) Transfer of electrons (hydride ions or H atoms) (C) Lyases (III) Group transfer reaction (D) Ligases (IV) Formation of C–C, C–S, C–O and C–N bonds by condensation reaction Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A)–(III); (B)–(I); (C)–(II); (D)–(IV) (A)–(I); (B)–(III); (C)–(II); (D)–(IV) (A)–(III); (B)–(II); (C)–(IV); (D)–(I) (A)–(II); (B)–(III); (C)–(I); (D)–(IV)

Enzyme Classes Matching

Q.53 Match List–I with List–II: List–I (Period) List–II (Event) (A) Carboniferous period (I) Origin of reptiles (B) Quaternary period (II) Origin of genus Homo (C) Permian period (III) Origin of present-day insects (D) Devonian period (IV) Origin of tetrapods Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A)–(I); (B)–(II); (C)–(III); (D)–(IV) (A)–(IV); (B)–(I); (C)–(III); (D)–(II) (A)–(III); (B)–(II); (C)–(IV); (D)–(I) (A)–(I); (B)–(III); (C)–(IV); (D)–(II)

Geological Periods Matching

Q.52 Match List–I with List–II : List–I (Proteins) List–II (Function) (A) BCI-2 (I) Growth factor receptor (B) Bax (II) Suppressor of apoptosis (C) Rb (III) Inducer of apoptosis (D) EGFR (IV) Suppressor of retinoblastoma Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. (A)–(II); (B)–(III); (C)–(IV); (D)–(I) 2. (A)–(III); (B)–(IV); (C)–(II); (D)–(I) 3. (A)–(I); (B)–(II); (C)–(IV); (D)–(III) 4. (A)–(III); (B)–(I); (C)–(IV); (D)–(II)

Apoptosis Proteins Matching

Q.51 Match List–I with List–II : List–I (Complement protein) List–II (Complement pathway) (A) C1 (I) Lectin pathway (B) C4 (II) Classical pathway (C) Factor B (III) Alternative pathway (D) MASP-1 (IV) Classical and lectin pathway Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A)–(I); (B)–(III); (C)–(IV); (D)–(II) (A)–(IV); (B)–(I); (C)–(III); (D)–(II) (A)–(II); (B)–(IV); (C)–(III); (D)–(I) (A)–(III); (B)–(II); (C)–(IV); (D)–(I)

Complement Proteins Matching

Q.50 Which of the following is recently added to the World UNESCO-Heritage list? Dholavira, Gujarat Rani Ki Vav, Gujarat Hill Fort, Rajasthan Red Fort, New Delhi

Recently Added UNESCO World Heritage Site

Q.49 Which of the following statements are related to nutrition? Parietal cells in the stomach secrete pepsinogen. Exocrine cells in the pancreas secrete digestive enzyme. Liver stores glucose in the form of starch. Lysozyme is present in the saliva which kills microorganisms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C, D only A, B, D only C, D only B, D only

Which Statements Relate to Nutrition? 

Q.48 Which of the following are desired characteristics of birds? Lacking urinary bladder Females having one ovary A few living birds have teeth Colour vision Endothermic Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C, D and E only A, B and E only A, B, D and E only A, B, C and E only

Bird Characteristics

Q.47 Which of the following statements are correct? In complete dominance of one allele, heterozygous phenotype is same as that of homozygous dominant. In codominance, both phenotypes are expressed in homozygotes. In multiple allele cases, genes have more than two alleles in the population. In pleiotropy, multiple gene affects single phenotypic character. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B, C and D only B, C and D only A and C only A only

Mendelian Genetics

Q.46 For DNA replication, which of the following statements are true? Circular chromosome of E. coli replicates through multiple origin of replication. In each linear chromosome of eukaryote, DNA replication begins when replication bubbles form at single site along giant DNA molecule. In each linear chromosome of eukaryote, DNA replication begins when replication bubbles form at multiple sites along giant DNA molecule. In circular chromosome of E. coli, one origin of replication is present. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A and C only B and D only C and D only A and B only

DNA Replication

Q.45 Which of the following statements are related to steroidal hormones? Cholesterol is the precursor of steroidal hormones. Steroidal hormones include oxytocin and prolactin. Steroidal hormones cannot cross the cell membrane without any receptor. StAR protein helps in transport of cholesterol from outer to inner mitochondrial membrane for steroid biosynthesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A and B only A and C only A and D only B and C only

Steroidal Hormones

Q.44 Echinoderm characteristics include: Calcareous endoskeleton in the form of ossicles derived from mesodermal tissue Adults have pentaradial symmetry and larvae with bilateral symmetry Water vascular system composed of water filled canals used in locomotion, attachment and feeding Incomplete digestive system and schizocoelous Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B and C only A, B, C and D only A, B and D only B, C and D only

 Echinoderm Characteristics

Q.43 Malignant tumor cells have the following properties A.Unregulated æll division B.Inhibition of angiogenesis C.Resistance to apoptosis D.Cellular immortality E.Ability to metastasis Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1.A, B, C and D only 2.A, B, D and E only 3.A, C, D and E only 4.B, C, D and E only

Malignant Tumor Cells

Q.42 Which statements about MHC molecules are correct? Class I MHC molecules are composed of two non-covalently associated glycoproteins, α and β chains. MHC genes are polymorphic. Class I MHC molecules are expressed on most nucleated cells. Class II MHC molecules are restricted to B-cells, macrophage and dendritic cells. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: B, C and D only A, B and D only A, C and D only A, B and C only

MHC Molecules Decoded

Q.41 Given below are two statements : Statement IRecombinant vaccine for hepatitis B is tle first synthetic vaccine for public use. Statement IIHepatitis B vaccine is a DNA vaccine. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below • 1.Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2.Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3.Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4.Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Hepatitis B Vaccine

Q.40 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Loss of immune function resulting from exposure to external agents such as infection is known as primary immunodeficiency. Statement II : Immunodeficiency due to developmental or inherited genetic defect in the immune system is called a secondary immunodeficiency. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Primary Secondary Immunodeficiency

Q.39 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Genetic code is degenerate. Statement II : Genetic code resists single-base substitution mutations. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Is Genetic Code Degenerate?

Q.38 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Myofibrils are not attached to the plasma membrane. Statement II : Myofibrils are attached to the plasma membrane at both ends of a muscle fibre. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Myofibrils Plasma Membrane Attachment

Q.37 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Integumentary systems like skin and hair provide sensory information and regulate body temperature. Statement II : Integumentary systems store energy reserves. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Integumentary System Functions

Q.36 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Javan Rhino is a vulnerable species. Statement II : One-horned Rhino is a vulnerable species. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Javan Rhino Vulnerable

Q.36 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Javan Rhino is a vulnerable species. Statement II : One-horned Rhino is a vulnerable species. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Javan Rhino Vulnerable

Q.35 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Paedogenesis is the retention of larval characters in the adults. Statement II : Neoteny refers to the accelerated gonadal maturation in the larvae. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Paedogenesis Retention Larval Characters

Q.34 Given below are two statements : Statement I : Parental care increases the chances of offspring survival but requires large energy expenditure. Statement II : In amphibians, females of the genus Pipa carry eggs on their head in cephalic hooks. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below : Both Statement I and Statement II are true Both Statement I and Statement II are false Statement I is true but Statement II is false Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Parental Care Offspring

Q.32 The sequence of events leading to evolution of life is : Protocell formation Formation of polymers from the monomers Origin of single-celled organisms Self-replicating RNA Abiotic synthesis of organic monomers i.e., amino acids and nitrogen base Choose the correct answer from the options given below : E, D, A, B, C E, A, D, B, C E, B, A, D, C E, B, D, A, C

Sequence of Events Leading to Evolution of Life

Q.31 During oogenesis, the following events occur in sequence : Primary oocyte undergoes meiotic division Secondary oocyte remains arrested until fertilization Oogonia undergo mitotic divisions Primordial germ cells undergo mitosis Choose the correct answer from the options given below : D, C, A, B C, A, B, D C, D, A, B A, B, C, D

Correct Sequence of Events in Oogenesis

Q.30 The correct sequence of metamorphosis in urochordates is : A non-feeding free swimming larva The outer epidermis, during metamorphosis shrinks and the notochord along with tail structure regresses The larva settles to a firm substrate by attaching with adhesive papilla Reorganisation of internal structure by 180° rotation Choose the correct answer from the options given below : C, A, B, D A, C, B, D A, B, C, D D, A, B, C

Urochordate Metamorphosis Sequence

Q.29 Arrange the following steps involved in phagocytosis of bacterium by a macrophage . A. Phagosome fuses with lysosome B. Bacterium is ingested, forming a phagosome C. Bacterium is killed and then digested by lysosomal enzymes D. Bacterium becomes attached to membrane evaginations called pseudopodia Choose the correct answer from the options given below : A, C, D, B D, B, A, C D, C, A, B B, C, A, D

Phagocytosis Steps Macrophage Bacterium

Q.28 Arrange the following enzymes involved in pathway of fatty acids in sequence : A. Aetyl-CoA-acetyltransferase B. Enoyl CoA hydratase C. Acyl-CoA synthetase D. Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase E. ß -hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase Choose the correct answer from the options given below : C, B, D, E, A B, C, D, A, E B, D, C, A, E C, D, B, E, A

Fatty Acid Beta Oxidation Enzymes Sequence

Q.27 Arrange the events of virus replication in a host cell • A. Attachment B. Packing of viral genome with structural proteins C. Release of genomic material in the host cytoplasm D. Synthesis of viral genes and proteins Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. A, B, C, D 2. A, C, D, B 3. B, A, C, D 4. C, D, B, A

Virus Replication Cycle Order

Q.26 Free swimming ciliated larva of human liver fluke is 1.miracidium 2.sporocyst 3.cercaria 4.metacercaria

Free Swimming Ciliated Larva Human Liver Fluke

Q.25 A fish that spends its adult life in seawater but migrates to the freshwater for spawning is 1.catadromous 2.anadromous 3.Limnodromus 4.oceanodromous

Anadromous Fish Migration

Q.24 An anapsid skull is a characteristic of 1.lizards 2.crocodiles 3.alligators 4.turtles

Anapsid Skull Characteristic

Q.23 The primitive streak is derived from 1.anterior epiblast cells 2.hypoblast cells 3.Hensen's node 4.blastocoel

Primitive Streak Origin

Q.22 Nieuwkoop centre is formed by the accumulation of 1. ß -catenin 2.Smad 2/4 3.Activin 4.TGF-ß 

Nieuwkoop Centre Formation

Q.21 Which statistical method is best suitable for testing the goodness of fit between an observed and expected distribution? 1.Analysis of variance (ANOVA) 2.Chi-square test 3.F-Test 4.Kruskal-Wallis test

Chi-Square Test Goodness

Q.20 Which hormone primarily accelerates the reabsorption of Na• along the distal convoluted tubule and proximal portion of collecting duct? 1.ADH 2.Renin 3.Aldosterone 4.Oxytocin

Aldosterone Role in Na⁺ Reabsorption

Q.19 The resting membrane potential of neuronal cell is maintained by 1. higher intracellular K+ ion conc. and lower extracellular Na+ ion conc. 2. higher extracellular K+ ion conc. and lower intracellular Na* ion conc. 3. higher intracellular K+ ion conc. and higher extracellular Na+ ion conc. 4. lower intracellular K+ ion conc. and higher extracellular Na* ion conc.

Resting Membrane Potential

Q.18 The amount of air that moves into the lungs with each normal inspiration is known as 1. inspiratory reserve volume 2. expiratory reserve volume 3. vital capacity 4. tidal volume

Tidal Volume

Q.17 The pH of cytoplasm and lysosomes are ~ 7 and ~5 respectively. How many fold H+ ion concentration is higher in lysosomes compared to cytoplasm? 1. 2 2. 50 3. 20 4. 100

Lysosome H+ Concentration vs Cytoplasm

Q.16 Which one of the following is not present in the smooth muscles? 1. Z-disc 2. H-band 3. Thick myofilaments 4. Thin myofilaments

Smooth Muscles Lack Z-Disc

Q.15 What is the theme of G-20 Summit currently held in India? 1. One Earth - One Goal 2. One Earth - One Family - One Future 3. Sustainable Living - Simple Thinking 4. Poverty eradication and 100% literacy

G20 Summit India Theme

Q.14 Active transport is required for 1. positively charged molecules 2. neutral molecules 3. negatively charged molecules 4. chloride ions

Active Transport Required

Q.13 Ramachandran plots are used to analyse 1. primary structure of proteins 2. secondary structure of proteins 3. tertiary structure of proteins 4. quaternary structure of proteins

Ramachandran Plots

Q.12 In eukaryotes, 5S rRNA is synthesized by 1. RNA polymerase I 2. RNA polymerase II 3. RNA polymerase III 4. RNA polymerase (sigma) subunit

Eukaryotes 5S rRNA

Q.11 Given below are two statements: Statement I :Speciation can occur rapidly or slowly. Statement II: Speciation can take place with geographic separation only. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Speciation Statements

Q.10 An interaction where one species is harmed and the other is unaffected is called 1. commensalism  2. facilitation 3. parasitism 4. amensalism

Species Interaction

Q.9 The mimicry in which a palatable species mimics a toxic species is called 1. character displacement mimicry 2. Batesian mimicry 3. Mullerian mimicry 4. Gregorian mimicry

Batesian Mimicry

Q.8 Evolution of drug-resistant bacteria is an example of 1. genetic drift 2. natural selection 3. bottleneck effect 4. founder effect

Drug-Resistant Bacteria Evolution

Q.7 The method used to analyse larger DNA fragments (> 1 Mbp) is 1. polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis 2. Isoelectric focusing 3. agarose gel electrophoresis 4. pulsed-field gel electrophoresis

DNA Fragment Analysis

Q.6 Given below are two statements: Statement I: On morphological grounds, scientists speculated that mitochondria and chloroplasts might be intracellular parasites that has established symbiotic relationship with the eukaryotic cells. Statement II:Blue-green algae thought to have originated the mitochondria, and bacteria have originated the chloroplasts. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false 4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Mitochondria Chloroplast Origin

Q.5 Hypersensitivity involved in blood transfusion and erythroblastosis fetalis is 1. Type I hypersensitivity 2. Type II hypersensitivity 3. Type III hypersensitivity 4. Type IV hypersensitivity

Hypersensitivity in Blood Transfusion

Q.4 Phenylketonuria is a type of 1. X-linked dominant disease 2. X-linked recessive disease 3. autosomal dominant disease 4. autosomal recessive disease

Phenylketonuria Inheritance

Q.3 Match List—I with List—II : List—I (Genetic Disorders) List—II (Genetic Alteration) (A) Down syndrome (I) Gain of X-chromosome (B) Klinefelter’s syndrome (II) Loss of X-chromosome (C) Turner’s syndrome (III) Trisomy of chromosome 21 (D) Cri du chat syndrome (IV) Deletion of small terminal portion of chromosome 5 Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. (A)–(III); (B)–(II); (C)–(I); (D)–(IV) 2. (A)–(III); (B)–(I); (C)–(II); (D)–(IV) 3. (A)–(I); (B)–(IV); (C)–(II); (D)–(III) 4. (A)–(IV); (B)–(I); (C)–(III); (D)–(II)

Down Syndrome to Cri du Chat

Q.2 In the lac operon, the lac repressor prevents the transcription initiation by binding to 1. lac inducer 2. lac terminator 3. open reading frame 4. lac operator

Lac Operon Repressor Binding

Q.1 Aristotle's lantern is a masticating apparatus of 1. sea urchins 2. lizards 3. toads 4. octopus

Aristotle’s Lantern

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