65. A linear double stranded DNA of length 8 kbp has three restriction sites. Each of these can either be a BamHI or a HaeIII site. The DNA was digested completely with both enzymes. The products were purified and subjected to an end-filling reaction using the Klenow fragment and [α-32P]-dCTP. The products of the end-filling reaction were purified, resolved by electrophoresis, stained with ethidium bromide (EtBr) and then subjected to autoradiography. The corresponding images are shown below.

Restriction Mapping Using BamHI and HaeIII with End-Filling

64. Biomass is being produced in a continuous stirred tank bioreactor of 750 L capacity. The sterile feed containing 8 g·L−1 glucose as substrate was fed at a flow rate of 150 L·h−1. The microbial system follows Monod’s model with μm = 0.4 h−1, Ks = 1.5 g·L−1 and Yx/s = 0.5 g cell mass·g substrate−1. Determine the cell productivity (g·L−1·h−1) at steady state. (A) 0.85 (B) 0.65 (C) 0.45 (D) 0.25

Continuous Stirred Tank Bioreactor

63. Samples of bacterial culture taken at 5 PM and then the next day at 5 AM were found to have 104 and 107 cells·mL−1, respectively. Assuming that both the samples were taken during the log phase of cell growth, the generation time of this bacterium will be __________ h.

Generation Time of Bacteria During Log Phase Growth

62. Cytoplasmic extract from the wild type strain of a bacterium has the ability to convert a colorless substrate (S) to a colored product (P) via three colorless intermediates X, Y and Z, in that order. Each step of the pathway involves a specific enzyme coded by a distinct gene. Four mutant strains (a−, b−, c−, d−) were isolated, whose extracts are incapable of producing the colored product in the presence of S. In a series of experiments, extracts from the individual mutants were incubated with X, Y or Z and scored for color development. The data are summarized below (Yes: color developed, No: no color developed). Mutants Compounds X Y Z a− No No No b− No Yes Yes c− Yes Yes Yes d− No No Yes Based on the data, which one of the following is the correct order of enzymes involved in the pathway? (A) S → d → X → c → Y → b → Z → a → P (B) S → a → X → d → Y → b → Z → c → P (C) S → b → X → a → Y → c → Z → d → P (D) S → c → X → b → Y → d → Z → a → P

Metabolic Pathway Enzyme Order Explained

60. The standard free energy change (ΔG°′) for ATP hydrolysis is −30 kJ·mole−1. The in vivo concentrations of ATP, ADP and Pi in E. coli are 7.90, 1.04 and 7.90 mM, respectively. When E. coli cells are cultured at 37 °C, the free energy change (ΔG) for ATP hydrolysis in vivo is __________ kJ·mole−1.

ΔG for ATP Hydrolysis in E. coli at 37°C

61. In a fed-batch culture, 200 g·L−1 glucose solution is added at a flow rate of 50 L·h−1. The initial culture volume (at quasi steady state) and the initial cell concentration are 600 L and 20 g·L−1, respectively. The yield coefficient (Yx/s) is 0.5 g cell mass·g substrate−1. The cell concentration (g·L−1) at quasi steady state at t = 8 h is (A) 40 (B) 52 (C) 60 (D) 68

Fed-Batch Culture Cell Concentration Calculation

59. Three distinct antigens X, Y and Z were used to raise antibodies. Antigen Z was injected in a mouse on day zero followed by the administration of antigens X and Y on day 28. A second injection of antigen X was administered on day 70. The antibody titers were monitored in the serum every day and the results are shown below. Which one of the following statements regarding the antibody titers in the serum is INCORRECT? (A) Z-specific IgG will be high on day 14 (B) X-specific antibody titer will be high on day 84 (C) X-specific IgG will be high on day 42 (D) Y-specific IgG will be high on day 84

Antibody Titer Dynamics Explained

58. An in vitro translation system can synthesize peptides in all three reading frames of the RNA template. When 5′- UCUCUCUC---(UC)ₙ---UCUCUCUC -3′ was used as the template in this in vitro translation system, the synthesized peptides contained 50% each of serine and leucine. When 5′- CCUCCUCCU---(CCU)ₙ---CCUCCU -3′ was used as the template, the synthesized peptides contained 33.3% each of serine, leucine, and proline. Deduce the codon for proline. (A) UCU (B) CUC (C) CCU (D) UCC

Deduce Proline Codon

57. A synchronous culture containing 1.8 × 105 monkey kidney cells was seeded into three identical flasks. The doubling time of these cells is 24 h. After 24 h, the cells from all the three flasks were pooled and dispensed equally into each well of three 6-well plates. The number of cells in each well will be __________ × 104.

Monkey Kidney Cells Doubling Time Calculation

56. Assuming random distribution of nucleotides, the average number of fragments generated upon digestion of a circular DNA of size 4.3 × 105 bp with AluI (5′-AG|CT-3′) is __________ × 103.

Calculating AluI Restriction Fragments

55. A heterozygous tall plant (Tt) was crossed with a homozygous dwarf plant (tt). The resultant seeds were collected. If five seeds are chosen at random, then the probability (in %) that exactly two of these seeds will yield dwarf plants is __________.

Probability Exactly 2 Dwarf Plants

54. The Ki of a novel competitive inhibitor designed against an enzyme is 2.5 µM. The enzyme was assayed in the absence or presence of the inhibitor (5 µM) under identical conditions. The Km in the presence of the inhibitor was found to be 30 µM. The Km in the absence of the inhibitor is __________ µM.

Calculate Km for Competitive Enzyme Inhibition

53. Consider the following multiple sequence alignment of four DNA sequences: A C T A A C T G A G T C A G C T Shannon’s entropy of the above alignment is __________.

Shannon’s Entropy of Multiple Sequence Alignment

52. If A = 4 2 1 3 then A2 + 3A will be

Find A2 + 3A – Matrix MCQ Solution

51. The diameters of a large and a small vessel are 1.62 m and 16.2 cm, respectively. The vessels are geometrically similar and operated under similar volumetric agitated power input. The mixing time in the small vessel was found to be 15 s. Determine the mixing time (in seconds) in the large vessel. (A) 15    (B) 30    (C) 61    (D) 122

Mixing Time Scale-Up in Geometrically Similar Vessels

50. Match the antibiotics in Group I with their modes of action in Group II. Group I Group II P) Chloramphenicol 1) Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 30S ribosomal subunit Q) Rifampicin 2) Interferes with DNA replication by inhibiting DNA gyrase R) Tetracycline 3) Inhibits protein synthesis by acting on 50S ribosomal subunit S) Quinolone 4) Interferes with RNA polymerase activity 5) Inhibits β-lactamase activity (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

Match the Antibiotics With Their Modes of Action

49. Choose the CORRECT sequence of steps involved in cytoplast production. (A) Digestion of cell wall → protoplast viability → cybrid formation → osmotic stabilizer (B) Osmotic stabilizer → digestion of cell wall → protoplast viability → cybrid formation (C) Protoplast viability → osmotic stabilizer → digestion of cell wall → cybrid formation (D) Osmotic stabilizer → digestion of cell wall → cybrid formation → protoplast viability

Cytoplast Production Steps Sequence

48. Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces ethanol by fermentation. The theoretical yield of ethanol from 2.5 g of glucose is __________ g.

Theoretical Yield of Ethanol

47. Match the reagents in Group I with their preferred cleavage sites in Group II. Group I Group II P) Cyanogen bromide 1) Carboxyl side of methionine Q) o-Iodosobenzoate 2) Amino side of methionine R) Hydroxylamine 3) Carboxyl side of tryptophan S) 2-Nitro-5-thiocyanobenzoate 4) Amino side of cysteine 5) Asparagine–glycine bonds (A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 (C) P-1, Q-2, R-5, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3

Match the Reagents With Their Preferred Cleavage Sites

46. Plasmid DNA (0.5 μg) containing an ampicillin resistance marker was added to 200 μL of competent cells. The transformed competent cells were diluted 10,000 times, out of which 50 μL was plated on agar plates containing ampicillin. A total of 35 colonies were obtained. The transformation efficiency is __________ × 106 cfu·μg−1.

Transformation Efficiency Calculation

45. Match the microorganisms in Group I with their fermentation products in Group II. Group I Group II P) Leuconostoc mesenteroides 1) Cobalamin Q) Rhizopus oryzae 2) Sorbose R) Gluconobacter suboxydans 3) Dextran S) Streptomyces olivaceus 4) Lactic acid 5) Butanol (A) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

Match the Microorganisms With Their Fermentation Products

44. Oxygen transfer was measured in a stirred tank bioreactor using dynamic method. The dissolved oxygen tension was found to be 80% air saturation under steady state conditions. The measured oxygen tensions at 7 s and 17 s were 55% and 68% air saturation, respectively. The volumetric mass transfer coefficient KLa is __________ s−1.

Volumetric Mass Transfer Coefficient KLa Calculation

43. Match the cells in Group I with their corresponding entries in Group II. Group I Group II P) Mast cells 1) Activation of the complement pathway Q) Natural killer cells 2) Expression of CD56 R) Neutrophils 3) Contains azurophilic granules S) Dendritic cells 4) Defense against helminthic infection 5) Production of antibodies specific to bacteria 6) Contains long membranous projections (A) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-6 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-6

Match the Cells With Their Corresponding Functions

42. The limit of the function (1 + 1/n)n as n → ∞ is (A) ln x (B) ln(1/x) (C) e−x (D) ex

Limit of (1 + 1/n)^n as n Approaches Infinity

41. Match the drugs in Group I with their mechanism of action in Group II. Group I Group II P) Paclitaxel 1) Inhibits protein translation Q) Colchicine 2) Inhibits microtubule depolymerization R) Etoposide 3) Inhibits DNA replication S) Methotrexate 4) Alkylates DNA 5) Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase 6) Inhibits microtubule polymerization (A) P-1, Q-6, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-6, R-3, S-5 (C) P-1, Q-3, R-6, S-5 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-6, S-4

Match the Drugs With Their Mechanism of Action

40. For a discrete random variable X, ran(X) = {0, 1, 2, 3} and the cumulative probability F(X) is shown below: X 0 1 2 3 F(X) 0.5 0.6 0.8 1.0 The mean value of X is __________.

Mean of a Discrete Random Variable

39. What are the eigenvalues of the following matrix? 1 1 −2 4 (A) 2 and 3 (B) −2 and 3 (C) 2 and −3 (D) −2 and −3

Eigenvalues of Matrix [1 1; −2 4]

38. Match the compounds in Group I with the correct entries in Group II. Group I Group II P) Cyanide 1) K+ ionophore Q) Antimycin A 2) Electron transfer from cytochrome b to cytochrome c1 R) Valinomycin 3) F1 subunit of ATP synthase S) Aurovertin 4) Cytochrome oxidase 5) Adenine nucleotide translocase (A) P-5, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-1

ETC Inhibitor Guide

37. How many rooted and unrooted phylogenetic trees, respectively, are possible with four different sequences? (A) 3 and 15 (B) 15 and 3 (C) 15 and 12 (D) 12 and 3

ow Many Rooted and Unrooted Phylogenetic Trees

36. An isolated population on an island has the following genotypic frequencies: Genotype AA Aa aa Frequency 0.3 0.4 0.3 Assuming that there are only two alleles (A and a) for the gene, the genotypic frequency of AA in the next generation will be __________.

Hardy–Weinberg Equilibrium Explained

35. The interaction between an antigen (Ag) and a single-chain antibody (Ab) was studied using Scatchard analysis. The result is shown below. In the plot, the Y-axis represents [Ab–Ag]/[Ag] and the X-axis represents [Ab–Ag]. The affinity of interaction and the total concentration of antibody, respectively, can be determined from (A) slope and Y-intercept (B) Y-intercept and slope (C) X-intercept and slope (D) slope and X-intercept

Scatchard Analysis of Antigen–Antibody Interaction

34. 2x1 + x2 = 3 5x1 + b x2 = 7.5 The system of linear equations in two variables shown above will have infinite solutions, if and only if b is equal to __________.

Infinite Solutions Linear Equations

33. Consider the following infinite series: 1 + r + r2 + r3 + … + ∞ If r = 0.3, then the sum of this infinite series is __________.

Sum of Infinite Geometric Series Formula

32. Choose the appropriate pair of primers to amplify the following DNA fragment by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). 5′–GACCTGTGG-----------------------------ATACGGGAT–3′ 3′–CTGGACACC-----------------------------TATGCCCTA–5′ Primers P. 5′–GACCTGTGG–3′ Q. 5′–CCACAGGTC–3′ R. 5′–TAGGCCATA–3′ S. 5′–ATCCCGTAT–3′ (A) P and R    (B) P and S    (C) Q and R    (D) Q and S

Choose PCR Primers to Amplify DNA Fragment

31. Which of the following gaphs represents uncompetitive inhibition?

Graph Representing Uncompetitive Inhibition

30. In DNA sequencing reactions usmg the chain termination method, the ratio of ddNTPs to dNTPs should be (A) 0          (B) 1

Chain Termination Method

29. How many different protein sequences of 100 residues can be generated using 20 standard amino acids? (A) 10020    (B) 100 × 20    (C) 20100    (D) 100! × 20!

How Many Different Protein Sequences

28. How many 3-tuples are possible for the following amino acid sequence? MADCMWDISAESE (A) 4    (B) 5    (C) 11    (D) 12

How Many 3-Tuples Are Possible

27. Which one of the following relations holds true for the specific growth rate (μ) of a microorganism in the death phase? (A) μ = 0    (B) μ < 0    (C) μ = μmax    (D) 0 < μ < μmax

Specific Growth Rate in Death Phase

26. Identify the file format given below: >P1; JMFD Protein X – Homo sapiens MKALTARQQEVFDLIRDHISRTRLQQGDWL (A) GDE    (B) FASTA    (C) NBRF    (D) GCG

 Identify File Format FASTA

25. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about a typical apoptotic cell? (A) Phosphatidylserine is presented on the outer cell surface (B) Cytochrome c is released from mitochondria (C) Mitochondrial membrane potential does not change (D) Annexin-V binds to the cell surface

Which is INCORRECT About Typical Apoptotic Cell?

24. Production of monoclonal antibodies by hybridoma technology requires (A) splenocytes    (B) osteocytes    (C) hepatocytes    (D) thymocytes

Production of Monoclonal Antibodies

23. Which one of the following features is NOT required in a prokaryotic expression vector? (A) oriC    (B) Selection marker    (C) CMV promoter    (D) Ribosome binding site

Prokaryotic Expression Vector Features

22. The determinant of the matrix is __________. 3 0 0 2 5 0 6 −8 −4

Determinant of a Matrix with Zero Columns

21. Which one of the following is NOT a product of denitrification in Pseudomonas? (A) N2    (B) N2O    (C) NO2−    (D) NH4+

Which is NOT a Product of Denitrification in Pseudomonas?

20. Which one of the following amino acids has the highest probability to be found on the surface of a typical globular protein in aqueous environment? (A) Ala    (B) Val    (C) Arg    (D) Ile

Which Amino Acid Has the Highest Probability

19. A single subunit enzyme converts 420 μmoles of substrate to product in one minute. The activity of the enzyme is __________ × 10−6 Katal.

Enzyme Activity Calculation

18. Which one of the following organisms is used for the determination of phenol coefficient of a disinfectant? (A) Salmonella typhi    (B) Escherichia coli (C) Candida albicans    (D) Bacillus psychrophilus

Phenol Coefficient Test

17. ABO blood group antigens in humans are differentiated from each other on the basis of (A) sialic acid    (B) lipids    (C) spectrin    (D) glycoproteins

ABO Blood Group Antigens

16. Anergy refers to (A) mitochondrial dysfunction (B) allergy to environmental antigens (C) unresponsiveness to antigens (D) a state of no energy

Anergy Refers to Unresponsiveness to Antigens

15. The cytokinetic organelle in plant cells is (A) centriole    (B) phragmoplast    (C) proplastid    (D) chromoplast

Cytokinetic Organelle in Plant Cells

14. Based on the heavy chain, which one of the following antibodies has multiple subtypes? (A) IgM    (B) IgD    (C) IgE    (D) IgG

IgG Antibodies

13. Which one of the following is a second generation genetically engineered crop? (A) Bt brinjal    (B) Roundup soybean    (C) Golden rice    (D) Bt rice

Second Generation Genetically Engineered Crop

12. Levinthal’s paradox is related to (A) protein secretion (B) protein degradation (C) protein folding (D) protein trafficking

Levinthal’s Paradox Explained

11. Which one of the following complement proteins is the initiator of the membrane attack complex? (A) C3a    (B) C3b    (C) C5a    (D) C5b

Which Complement Protein Initiates the Membrane Attack Complex?

10. Humpty Dumpty sits on a wall every day while having lunch. The wall sometimes breaks. A person sitting on the wall falls if the wall breaks. Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences? (A) Humpty Dumpty always falls while having lunch (B) Humpty Dumpty does not fall sometimes while having lunch (C) Humpty Dumpty never falls during dinner (D) When Humpty Dumpty does not sit on the wall, the wall does not break

Humpty Dumpty Logic Puzzle

9. A cube of side 3 units is formed using a set of smaller cubes of side 1 unit. Find the proportion of the number of faces of the smaller cubes visible to those which are NOT visible. (A) 1 : 4    (B) 1 : 3    (C) 1 : 2    (D) 2 : 3

Cube of Side 3 Units Smaller Cubes

8. Fill in the nussmg value

Fill in the Missing Value Puzzle

7. Read the following paragraph and choose the correct statement. Climate change has reduced human security and threatened human well being. An ignored reality of human progress is that human security largely depends upon environmental security. But on the contrary, human progress seems contradictory to environmental security. To keep up both at the required level is a challenge to be addressed by one and all. One of the ways to curb the climate change may be suitable scientific innovations, while the other may be the Gandhian perspective on small scale progress with focus on sustainability. (A) Human progress and security are positively associated with environmental security. (B) Human progress is contradictory to environmental security. (C) Human security is contradictory to environmental security. (D) Human progress depends upon environmental security.

Climate Change, Human Progress, and Environmental Security

6. The followmg question presents a sentence, part of which is underlined. Beneath the sentence you find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Following the requirements of the standard written English, select the answer that produces the most effective sentence. Tuberculosis, together with its effects, ranks one of the leading causes of death in India. (A) ranks as one of the leading causes of death (B) rank as one of the leading causes of death (C) has the rank of one of the leading causes of death (D) are one of the leadmg causes of death

Mastering Subject-Verb Agreement

5. If logx (5/7) = −1/3, then the value of x is (A) 343/125 (B) 125/343 (C) −25/49 (D) −49/25

Solve log_x (5/7

4. Operators □, ◊ and → are defined by: a □ b =a − b /(a + b),   a ◊ b =a + b /(a − b),   a → b = ab Find the value of (66 □ 6) → (66 ◊ 6). (A) −2    (B) −1    (C) 1    (D) 2

Solve (66 □ 6) → (66 ◊ 6)

3. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the given word: Educe (A) Exert    (B) Educate    (C) Extract    (D) Extend

Educe Meaning and Synonyms

2. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the four options given below, to complete the following sentence: Frogs __________. (A) croak    (B) roar    (C) hiss    (D) patter

What Sound Do Frogs Make?

1 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence. The principal presented the chief guest with a __________, as token of appreciation. (A) momento    (B) memento    (C) momentum    (D) moment

Memento vs Momento

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