Category: GATE Life Science 2016 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

Category: GATE Life Science 2016 Previous Year Papers with Solutions

GATE Life Science 2016 Previous Year Papers with Solutions – Complete Preparation Guide

The GATE Life Science (XL) 2016 question paper is an extremely important resource for aspirants who want to build strong fundamentals and understand how core biological concepts are tested in the GATE examination. Solving GATE Life Science 2016 previous year papers with detailed solutions helps students decode exam trends, conceptual depth, and the analytical nature of questions.

At Let’s Talk Academy, GATE Life Science preparation is firmly based on a previous year question (PYQ)–centric strategy, ensuring aspirants focus only on exam-relevant and high-scoring topics.

Why GATE Life Science 2016 Previous Year Papers Are Important

GATE Life Science is designed to test concept application, logical reasoning, and analytical skills, not rote memorization. The 2016 paper assessed:

  • Fundamental Life Science concepts
  • Interdisciplinary application of biology
  • Numerical and analytical problem-solving
  • Interpretation of experimental and theoretical data

By practicing GATE Life Science 2016 PYQs, aspirants can:

  • Understand the true difficulty level of the GATE exam
  • Identify frequently repeated and high-weightage topics
  • Learn the pattern of MCQs, MSQs, and NAT questions
  • Improve speed, accuracy, and confidence
  • Develop a strong GATE exam-oriented mindset

Previous year papers serve as the most authentic reference for preparation.

Subjects Covered in GATE Life Science 2016 PYQs

The GATE Life Science 2016 question paper included questions from all major domains, such as:

  • Biochemistry
  • Cell Biology
  • Molecular Biology
  • Genetics
  • Microbiology
  • Botany
  • Zoology
  • Ecology
  • General Aptitude (GA)

Practicing PYQs subject-wise helps in targeted improvement, while full-length paper practice builds exam readiness.

Importance of Solved GATE Life Science 2016 Papers with Detailed Solutions

Attempting questions without proper explanations limits learning. Solved GATE Life Science 2016 previous year papers with detailed solutions help aspirants to:

  • Understand why an option is correct or incorrect
  • Strengthen concepts directly tested in the exam
  • Learn exam-oriented numerical-solving techniques
  • Avoid common conceptual mistakes
  • Improve long-term retention of important topics

Each properly analyzed PYQ strengthens multiple chapters simultaneously.

Which Online Test Series Include GATE Life Science Previous Year Papers for Practice?

This is a very common question among GATE aspirants.

Which online test series include GATE Life Science previous year papers for practice?

For authentic, exam-aligned, and reliable online practice, Let’s Talk Academy offers a dedicated GATE Life Science online test series that includes previous year papers.

Why Let’s Talk Academy Online Test Series Is Ideal

The Let’s Talk Academy GATE Life Science Test Series includes:

  • Full-length GATE Life Science previous year papers (including 2016)
  • Topic-wise PYQ-based practice tests
  • Detailed solutions and answer explanations
  • Performance analysis to identify weak areas
  • Exam-like interface aligned with the real GATE pattern

All tests are designed strictly using official GATE question papers, ensuring accuracy, relevance, and real exam exposure.

How to Use GATE Life Science 2016 PYQs Effectively

To gain maximum benefit from previous year papers:

  • Start with topic-wise PYQs during concept building
  • Move to full-length GATE 2016 paper practice
  • Analyze every incorrect or guessed question carefully
  • Maintain a PYQ error and concept notebook
  • Revise weak topics immediately after analysis

Consistent analysis is more important than solving a large number of questions.

Who Should Practice GATE Life Science 2016 PYQs?

  • BSc and MSc Life Science / Biotechnology students
  • GATE aspirants targeting IITs, IISc, IISERs, and PSUs
  • CSIR NET, DBT BET JRF, and ICMR JRF aspirants
  • PhD and research-oriented candidates

PYQs build a strong conceptual base that benefits multiple Life Science competitive examinations.

Why Let’s Talk Academy Emphasizes PYQ-Based Preparation

Let’s Talk Academy follows a previous year paper–driven learning approach because it:

  • Eliminates unnecessary syllabus overload
  • Improves conceptual clarity and accuracy
  • Builds exam confidence through real GATE questions
  • Aligns preparation with actual GATE expectations

This strategy has consistently helped Life Science aspirants improve scores and ranks.

Final Conclusion

For GATE Life Science 2016, previous year question papers with detailed solutions are indispensable for serious aspirants. When combined with the Let’s Talk Academy online test series, PYQs become a powerful tool for practice, self-assessment, and performance improvement.

Make GATE Life Science PYQs the backbone of your preparation strategy and let real exam questions guide your success.

Q. 105 Given below is the list of animals and their respective characteristics. Animals I. Sea anemone II. Bluefly III. Starfish IV. Sponge Characteristics i. Three pairs of jointed legs ii. Diploblastic acoelomate iii. Collar cells iv. Tube feet Which ONE of the following represents the correct match? (A) I-iv; II-i; III-ii; IV-iii (B) I-iii; II-i; III-iv; IV-ii (C) I-ii; II-i; III-iv; IV-iii (D) I-ii; II-i; III-iii; IV - iv

Matching Animals to Characteristics

Q. 104 The migratory desert locust, Schistocerca gregaria, exists in two mutually exclusive forms: a shortwinged, uniformly colored, solitary insect and a long-winged, brightly colored, gregarious morph. These phenotypes depend on crowding. Such phenotypic plasticity is called (A) reaction norm. (B) polyphenism. (C) Batesian mimicry. (D) polymorphism.

Understanding Phenotypic Plasticity in Desert Locusts

Q. 103 In an experiment involving Drosophila development, a large amount of purified bicoid mRNA was injected into the posterior end of a wild-type embryo, the resulting developing embryo will have (A) normal development with one each of head, thorax and abdomen. (B) head in the middle with two thoraces and two abdomens. (C) a head with two thoraces and an abdomen. (D) two heads and two thoraces with an abdomen segment in the middle.

What Happens When Bicoid mRNA

Q. 102 Entamoeba histolytica is an intestinal parasite that causes dysentery in humans. This parasite resides in the isotonic environment of intestine and other tissues in the human body and does not possess contractile vacuoles. If this parasite is placed in fresh water, it will (A) survive for long time, until they re-enter the host environment. (B) die due to hypoosmotic shock. (C) not survive in water as they require high salt content. (D) die due to hyperosmotic shock

Entamoeba histolytica in Freshwater

Q. 101 Glycoprotein hormones, hCG and eCG, are synthesized in women and mares respectively, during pregnancy. Both of these chorionic gonadotropin hormones (A) have only LH-like activity in their respective species. (B) have only FSH-like activity in other species. (C) are biologically inactive in other species. (D) are routinely employed to promote final stages of follicular maturation, ovulation and to treat infertility in women

Unraveling Glycoprotein Hormones

Q. 100 In an experiment involving development of 64-cell stage sea urchin, an isolated animal hemisphere was combined with isolated micromeres. Which ONE of the following will be the resulting structure? (A) A ball of ectomesodermal cells (B) A ciliated ball of ectodermal cells (C) A recognizable pluteus larva (D) A ball of endodermal cells

Sea Urchin Embryo Development

Q. 99 Which ONE of the following mechanisms is used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? (A) Environmental signals enter the cell and bind directly to promoters. (B) Genes share a common intragenic sequence, and allow several activators to turn on their transcription, regardless of location. (C) Genes are organized into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit. (D) Genes are organized into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all the clustered genes at once

How Eukaryotic Cells Coordinate Multiple Gene Expression

Q. 98 The primary function of polysaccharides attached to glycoproteins in the animal cell membrane is to (A) facilitate diffusion of molecules down their concentration gradients. (B) maintain membrane fluidity at low temperatures. (C) maintain the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane. (D) mediate cell-to-cell recognition

Primary Function of Polysaccharides in Glycoproteins

Q. 97 The molecules, hexanoic acid, lysine, histidine and glucose, each contain 6 carbon atoms, but have completely different properties due to the presence of different functional groups. Which ONE of these molecules has a high calorific value? (A) Lysine (B) Hexanoic acid (C) Glucose (D) Histidine

Which C6 Molecule Has the Highest Calorific Value

Q. 96 In a population, 600 individuals have MM blood group, 300 have MN blood group and 100 have NN blood group. What will be the frequencies of M and N alleles in this population? (A) M 0.75 and N 0.25 (B) M 0.65 and N 0.35 (C) M 0.85 and N 0.15 (D) M 0.55 and N 0.45

Calculating M and N Allele Frequencies

Q. 95 During the gastrulation stage of amphibian development, ectoderm formation takes place by the expansion of epithelial cell sheet over mesodermal cells. This type of cell movement is termed as (A) ingression. (B) epiboly. (C) involution. (D) delamination

Epiboly in Amphibian Gastrulation

Q. 94 Which ONE of the following is often a life-threatening systemic inflammatory response? (A) Tuberculosis (B) Lupus erythematosus (C) Septic shock (D) Hypertension

The Life-Threatening Systemic Inflammatory Response

Q. 93 Toxoplasmosis in humans is caused by Toxoplasma gondii, an obligate intracellular parasite with two different life cycles, sexual and asexual. The sexual cycle occurs in which ONE of the following definitive hosts? (A) Dog (B) Cat (C) Rat (D) Human

Definitive Host for Toxoplasma gondii Sexual Cycle

Q. 92 When cells are treated with cyanide, which ONE of the following organelles will have the highest level of cyanide inside? (A) Mitochondria (B) Peroxisomes (C) Lysosomes (D) Endoplasmic reticulum

Cyanide Cell Treatment

Q. 91 Detoxification of alcohol occurs in liver cells where peroxisomal enzymes remove hydrogen from it, which is (A) combined with water molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide. (B) used to break down hydrogen peroxide. (C) transferred to the mitochondria. (D) transferred to oxygen molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide

Alcohol Detoxification in Liver

Q.90 Which of the following cations are found in higher concentration in extracellular fluid as compared to intracellular fluid in animals? (A) Na+and Ca++ (B) K+and Ca++ (C) K+and Mg++ (D) Na+and Mg++

Na+ and Ca2+ Dominate Extracellular Fluid

Q. 89 The sex of a Drosophila melanogaster, which has 4 copies of X-chromosomes and 4 sets of autosomes will be (A) female. (B) male. (C) metafemale. (D) metamale.

Drosophila Sex Determination

Q. 88 The nature of the polymorphic DNA fragment used for mapping is (A) dominant. (B) partial dominant. (C) co-dominant. (D) recessive

Polymorphic DNA Fragment Mapping

Q. 87 A population of Bees develops resistance to pesticides and the trait gets fixed within a few generations. This is an example of (A) macroevolution. (B) disruptive selection. (C) stabilizing selection. (D) microevolution.

Understanding Pesticide Resistance in Bees

Q.86 Acorn worms (Saccoglassus sp.) belong to which ONE of the following Phyla? (A) Platyhelminthes (B) Achelminthes (C) Hemichordata (Chordata) (D) Annelida

Acorn Worms (Saccoglossus sp.)

Q.85 Match the antibiotics given in Group I with appropriate targets from Group II. Group I (P) Nalidixic acid (Q) Tetracycline (R) Erythromycin (S) Rifampin Group II (I) RNA polymerase (II) DNA gyrase (III) DNA polymerase (IV) 50 S ribosomal subunit (V) Aminoacyl tRNA (A) P-III, Q-IV, R-V, S-I (B) P-V, Q-I, R-IV, S-II (C) P-II, Q-V, R-IV, S-I (D) P-II, Q-V, R-I, S-IV

Antibiotic Targets Matching

Q.84 Match the cell structure components given in Group I with appropriate functions from Group II. Group I (P) Cell membrane (Q) Purple membrane (R) Cisternae (S) Outer membrane Group II (I) Nutrient transport (II) Photosynthesis (III) Active transport (IV) Protein glycosylation (V) Light-driven proton transport (A) P-I, Q-V, R-II, S-III (B) P-I, Q-II, R-IV, S-III (C) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-I (D) P-III, Q-V, R-IV, S-I

Cell Structure Matching

Q. 83 The growth profile of E. coli on glucose plus lactose is shown below. The specific growth rate of the second exponential phase is ____ 𝐡−𝟏.

E. coli Growth on Glucose and Lactose

Q. 82 If a bacterial cell contains 5,000 genes and if the average mutation frequency per gene is 𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 per generation, the average number of new mutations per generation is ____ .

Average Number of New Mutations per Generation in Bacteria

Q. 81 Nitrogenase reduces 𝐍𝟐 to 𝐍𝐇𝟑. Metal co-factors required for this activity are ____ . (A) Fe&Cu (B) Mo&Fe (C) Mo & Mn (D) Cu&Mn

Nitrogenase Metal Cofactors

Q. 80 E. coli requires three genes, galK (kinase), galT (transacetylase) and galE (epimerase) to utilize galactose. If there is a mutation in any one of these genes, the mutant cannot utilize galactose. Which one of the following combinations of merodiploids will support the growth of mutants on galactose? (P) galK+galT+galE-/ galK-galT+galE- (Q) galK-galT+ +galE-/galK+galT-galE+ (R) galK+galT-galE-/galK-galT-galE+ (S) galK+galT+galE-/galK+galT-galE+ (A) P & Q  (B) P & R  (C) R & S  (D) Q & S

Galactose Utilization Merodiploid Genetics Problem

Q. 79 The decimal reduction time ( 𝐃𝟏𝟐𝟏 ) for Clostridium botulinum spores is 0.2 min . The time required to reduce the spore count from 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟐 to one spore at 𝟏𝟐𝟏∘𝐂 is ____ minutes.

Clostridium Botulinum D121 Value

Q.78 Which one of the following enzyme combinations allows some bacteria to utilize acetate through glyoxylate pathway? (P) Isocitrate lyase (Q) Isocitrate dehydrogenase (R) Succinyl CoA synthetase (S) Malate synthase (A) P & S (B) P & R (C) Q & S (D) Q & R

Glyoxylate Pathway Enzymes

Q.77 At 𝐎𝐃𝟓𝟒𝟎 𝐧𝐦 = 𝟎. 𝟓, which one of the following bacterial mono-dispersed cell suspensions will have (i) maximum and (ii) minimum number of cells? (P) Mycoplasma pneumoniae (Q) Micrococcus luteus (R) Bacillus subtilis (S) Escherichia coli (A) P & Q (B) P&R (C) Q & R (D) R & S

Understanding Bacterial Cell Density

Q.76 Which of the following infectious agents cross the blood-brain barrier? (P) Streptococcus pneumoniae (Q) Coxsackie virus (R) Rotavirus (S) Streptococcus pyogenes (A) P & S (B) R & S (C) P & Q (D) Q & R

Which Infectious Agents Cross the Blood-Brain Barrier?

Q.75 E. coli ribonuclease contains 124 amino acids. The number of nucleotides present in the gene encoding the protein is ____ .

E. coli Ribonuclease Gene

Q.74 The net yield of NADH in the Embden-Meyerhof pathway in E. coli is ____ . 

Net Yield of NADH in Embden-Meyerhof Pathway in E. coli

Q. 73 The precursor for the synthesis of aromatic amino acids is (A) phosphoenolpyruvate (B) pyruvate (C) oxaloacetate (D) 𝛼-ketoglutarate

Precursor for Aromatic Amino Acid Synthesis

Q. 72 Biofilm produced by bacteria is detected by (A) Saffranin (B) Malachite green (C) Basic fuchsin (D) Congo red

How Bacteria Produce Biofilms

Q.71 Teichoic acid is composed of repetitive units of (A) keto-deoxy octanoic acid (B) glucose (C) 𝑁-acetyl glucosamine (D) glycerol 

Teichoic Acid Composition

Q. 70 The enzyme responsible for generation of hypochlorous ions during phagocytosis is (A) NADPH oxidase (B) catalase (C) myeloperoxidase (D) superoxide dismutase

Myeloperoxidase: Enzyme for Hypochlorous Ions

Q.69 Resident macrophages of ____ are called Kupffer cells. (A) brain (B) liver (C) lung (D) kidney

Resident Macrophages

Q.68 Which one of the following is NOT a part of human microbiome? (A) Propionibacterium acnes (B) Lactobacillus casei (C) Streptococcus suis (D) Bacteroides fragilis

Which Bacterium Is Not Part of the Human Microbiome?

Q.67 Which one of the following phages undergoes non-integrative lysogenic phase? (A) 𝜆 (B) P 1 (C) T 7 (D) M13

Lambda vs P1 vs T7 vs M13

Q.66 Which one of the following is the most appropriate technique to determine the relatedness of two bacterial species? (A) DNA hybridization (B) Doubling time measurement (C) Biochemical characterization (D) Plasmid profiling 

Gold Standard for Bacterial Species Relatedness

Q. 65 The basic tenets of the ABC model of Arabidopsis flower development are shown below along with a diagram. i. 𝑨 class genes acting alone determine sepal identity ii. 𝑨 and 𝑩 class genes acting together determine petal identity iii. 𝑩 and 𝑪 class genes acting together determine stamen identity iv. 𝑪 class genes acting alone determine carpel identity v. 𝑨 and 𝑪 class genes mutually inhibit each other Which of the following organ arrangements is found in an 𝑨 class mutant? (A) sepal; petal; stamen; carpel (B) carpel; stamen; stamen; carpel (C) petal; petal; stamen; carpel (D) stamen; stamen; stamen; carpe

ABC Model of Flower Development

Q.64 Given below are the names of some genes/enzymes and their use in genetically modified crops. Match the two columns. Gene/enzyme                                                                  Commercial use -----------                                                                            --------------------- P. Bt gene                                                                           i. golden rice Q. 𝛽-carotene biosynthetic genes                                 ii. insect resistance R. ACC deaminase                                                           iii. herbicide resistance S. EPSP synthase                                                              iv. fruit ripening (A) P, i; Q, ii; R, iii; S, iv (B) P, ii; Q, i; R, iv; S, iii (C) P, iii; Q, i; R, ii; S, iv (D) P, ii; Q, i; R, iii; S, iv

Bt Gene Matching in GM Crops

Q.63 The continuous and dashed lines in the following graph represent the velocity of sap flow in two different parts of a plant at different times of a day. Which of the following statements is most appropriate based on this graph? (A) The continuous line represents the trunk, and the dotted line a twig (B) The continuous line represents a twig, and the dotted line the trunk (C) The continuous line represents a root, and the dotted line a twig (D) The continuous line represents a root, and the dotted line the trunk

Diurnal Variation in Sap Flow Velocity

Q.62 Hardy Weinberg's equilibrium for a locus with two alleles p and q is mathematically defined as P2 + Q2 + 2PQ = 1. Which of the following equations represents the corresponding equilibrium for a locus with three alleles p, q and r? (P, Q and R represent the frequencies ofp, q and r, respectively) P3 + Q3 + R3 + 3PQR = 1 P2 + Q2 + R2 + 2PQ + 2QR + 2PR = 1 P2Q + Q2R + R2P + 2PQ + 2QR + 2PR = 1 P2 + Q2 + R2 + 2P2Q + 2Q2R + 2P2R = 1

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium for Three Alleles

Q.61 The cell surface expands differently in different plant cells. Two common modes of expansion are shown below ( X and Y ). Each rectangular box represents a cell marked with dots on its surface. The spacing between the dots changes after the cell has undergone expansion as indicated by the arrow. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the growth of root hair and pollen tube? X Y (A) Both grow as shown in X (B) Both grow as shown in Y (C) Pollen tube grows as shown in X , root hair grows as shown in Y (D) Root hair grows as shown in X , pollen tube grows as shown in Y

Modes of Cell Surface Expansion in Plants

Q.60 An RFLP marker shows sequence polymorphism in two ecotypes ( X and Y ) of a plant. In ecotype X, the marker contains one GAATTC site in its sequence, whereas in Y it has the sequence GAAATC at the same site. The rest of the sequence is identical in both ecotypes. In a genotyping experiment, the marker was PCR amplified from four different seedlings ( 𝐏, 𝐐,𝐑, 𝐒 ), completely digested with EcoRI and the products were analyzed by electrophoresis. The diagram below shows the band patterns obtained. Based on the information provided, which of the following statements is correct? (A) Seedling Q belongs to ecotype Y (B) Seedling Q belongs to ecotype X (C) Seedling P belongs to ecotype Y (D) Seedling R belongs to ecotype Y 

RFLP Marker Analysis Using EcoRI

Q.59 PIN proteins are plasma membrane-localized carrier proteins required for polar auxin transport in plants. Four different carrier proteins are shown in the diagram below labeled P1-P4. Arrow indicates the direction of auxin flow. Which among these is most likely to be a PIN protein? (A) P 1 (B) P 2 (C) P 3 (D) P 4 

PIN Proteins and Polar Auxin Transport

Q.58 The three plots 𝐏, 𝐐 and R (in different units) in the graph below represent the dependence of photosynthesis rate (PR), leaf expansion rate (LER) and translocation rate of assimilates (TR) in a plant on leaf water potential. Which of the following statements is correct in this regard? (A) P represents LER; Q represents TR; R represents PR (B) 𝑃 represents TR; 𝑄 represents PR; 𝑅 represents LER (C) P represents PR; Q represents LER; R represents TR (D) 𝑃 represents LER; Q represents PR; R represents TR

Effect of Leaf Water Potential

Q.57 Consider the following pathway controlling time to flowering in wheat: If batch 𝑃 of wheat seed is vernalized before sowing and batch 𝑄 is not vernalized, then which of the following statements is most likely to be correct? (A) 𝑃 will have lower 𝑉𝑅𝑁2 transcript and will flower later than 𝑄 (B) 𝑃 will have lower 𝑉𝑅𝑁2 transcript and will flower earlier than 𝑄 (C) 𝑃 will have higher 𝑉𝑅𝑁2 transcript and will flower later than 𝑄 (D) 𝑃 and 𝑄 will have equal VRN2 transcript and will flower at the same time

Vernalization Pathway in Wheat

Q.56 An inbred line of a plant with red flower and tall stem was crossed to another inbred line with white flower and short stem. The 𝐅𝟏 plants, which all had red flower and tall stem, were backcrossed to the line with white flower and short stem, and the following 𝐅𝟐 individuals were obtained: 103 red, tall; 89 white, short; 26 red, short; and 23 white, tall. What is the recombination percentage between the flower color locus and the stem height locus. (A) 19− 21% (B) 49 −51% (C) 79 −81% (D) 0− 2% 

Recombination Frequency in Flower Color & Stem Height

Q.55 When a plant is infected by a pathogen at one site, the distal parts of the plant and neighboring plants develop increased resistance to subsequent pathogen attack. Which of the following molecules mediates this long-distance signal? (A) Nitric oxide (B) Ethylene (C) Jasmonic acid and its derivatives (D) Salicylic acid and its derivatives 

Plant Systemic Acquired Resistance

Q.54 Which of the following is a neutral phenomenon? (A) Natural selection (B) Sexual selection (C) Genetic drift (D) Population bottleneck

Which Phenomenon is Truly Neutral?

Q.53 Which of the following is NOT involved in plant immune response? (A) Antimicrobial proteins (B) Hypersensitive response (C) Pattern recognition receptors (D) Interleukins

Which Option Is NOT Part of Plant Immune Response?

Q.52 Atropine is a drug used in the management of pesticide poisoning. Which of the following plants can serve as a commercial source of this anticholinergic drug? (A) Datura metel (B) Medicago trancatula (C) Mangifera indica (D) Arachis hypogaea

Atropine Source Plant

Q.51 Which of the following summarizes the role of Casparian strip in transport of water in the root? (A) Symplast to Apoplast (B) Apoplast to Symplast (C) Phloem to Xylem (D) Xylem to Phloem

Casparian Strip Role in Root Water Transport

Q.50 The uptake of nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P) by plant roots often involves interaction between root and some symbiotic organisms. Which of the following associations is most commonly found for the uptake of these two nutrients? (A) Bacteria for N , algae for P (B) Bacteria for N , nematodes for P (C) Nematodes for N , fungi for P (D) Bacteria for N , mycorrhizae for P

Symbiotic Uptake of Nitrogen and Phosphorus in Plants

Q.49 4',6 diamidino 2-phenylindole (DAPI) is a fluorescent dye used to stain the nucleus. Which of the following plant cells, when mature, cannot be stained by DAPI? (A) Trichomes (B) Tracheids (C) Collenchyma (D) Mesophyll

DAPI Staining in Plant Cells

Q.48 Which of the following is the closest ancestor of all land plants? (A) Blue green algae (B) Red algae (C) Chara (D) Coleochaeteae

Closest Ancestor of Land Plants

Q.47 Which of the following does NOT use xylem to transport water? (A) Miscanthus (B) Marchantia (C) Selaginella (D) Magnolia

Which Plant Does Not Use Xylem for Water Transport?

Q.46 Which of the following is most abundant in the aleurone layer of wheat seeds? (A) Tannin (B) Starch (C) Protein (D) Lipid

Aleurone Layer of Wheat Seed

Q.45 The sequence of a polypeptide that forms a transmembrane helix is shown below. Which one of the following segments of the peptide is most likely to span the membrane? (A) E3-G22 (B) V5-A25 (C) E15 −A34 (D) F21-R40

Transmembrane Helix Prediction

Q.44 An N-terminal His-tagged protein of molecular weight 40 kDa was purified using Ni-NTA column. This protein sample was subjected to SDS-PAGE. A western blot of the same using anti-His antibodies is shown below. Which one of the following interpretations is correct? (A) Only the His-tag of the protein got removed (B) The protein forms oligomers (C) The purified protein sample is homogeneous (D) The protein has a stable N-terminal 20 kDa domain 

His‑Tagged 40 kDa Protein on Western Blot

Q.43 A polypeptide with the amino acid sequence 'AGKPDHEKAHL' was dissolved in a buffer of pH 1.8. The predominant form of the polypeptide will have a net charge of (A) +4 (B) +5 (C) +7 (D) +11

Net Charge of Polypeptide

Q.42 Kinetic parameters for the enzyme fumarase with three different substrates are given below. Substrate                                       𝐊𝐌(𝝁𝐌)                                   𝐤cat (𝐬𝐞𝐜−𝟏) Fluorofumarate                             27                                             2700 Fumarate                                        5                                               800 Chlorofumarate                            111                                            20 The specificity of fumarase for the substrates decreases in the order (A) Fluorofumarate > Fumarate > Chlorofumarate (B) Chlorofumarate > Fluorofumarate > Fumarate (C) Fumarate > Fluorofumarate > Chlorofumarate (D) Fumarate > Chlorofumarate > Fluorofumarate

Fumarase Specificity

Q.41 Aspartate residues are found in the active sites of many enzymes. The 𝐩𝐊𝐚 for the 𝜷-carboxylate of aspartate is 3.86 . At physiological pH this group can function as (A) a nucleophile and a conjugate acid (B) an electrophile and a conjugate acid (C) a nucleophile and a conjugate base (D) an electrophile and a conjugate base

Aspartate in Enzyme Active Sites

Q.40 An enzyme was purified using ion-exchange chromatography and the results are shown in the table below. Step                                 Volume (ml)                Total protein (mg)            Total activity (U) Cell extract                    8000                                   400                                        800 DEAE Sephacel            10                                         2                                             200 Which one of the following is the correct interpretation of these data? (A) 50 fold purification was achieved with 25% yield of the enzyme (B) 25 fold purification was achieved with 50% yield of the enzyme (C) 50 fold purification was achieved with 4% yield of the enzyme (D) 200 fold purification was achieved with 25% yield of the enzyme

Calculating Fold Purification and Yield

Q.39 Three micrograms of a circular plasmid of 4200 bp was digested with a restriction enzyme and subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. Five DNA fragments of different sizes were observed and their sizes summed up to 4200 bp. The number of picomoles of DNA ends generated after complete digestion with the enzyme is ____ . (Given: average molecular weight of each base pair is 660 Da )

Restriction Enzyme Digest of Circular Plasmid

Q.38 When freshly isolated intact mitochondria were incubated with ADP and inorganic phosphate neither the oxygen consumption nor the ATP synthesis could be detected. Addition of succinate resulted in increased oxygen consumption as well as ATP synthesis with time. Subsequent addition of cyanide to this system will result in which one of the following? (A) Both oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis are inhibited (B) Oxygen consumption continues but ATP synthesis is inhibited (C) Oxygen consumption is inhibited but ATP synthesis continues (D) Both oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis continue

Cyanide Effect on Electron Transport Chain

Q.37 The 𝚫𝐆′𝐨for the malate dehydrogenase catalyzed step of Krebs cycle is +𝟕. 𝟏𝐤𝐜𝐚𝐥/𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞.Nevertheless, the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate in vivo proceeds spontaneously because the subsequent reaction that consumes oxaloacetate has a 𝚫𝐆′𝟎 of (A) −3.0kcal/mole (B) +3.0kcal/mole (C) −7.7kcal/mole (D) +7.7kcal/mole

Malate to Oxaloacetate in Krebs Cycle

Q.36 Four groups of metabolites are given below. Choose the group in which all the compounds contain at least one bond whose 𝚫𝐆 ′𝟎 of hydrolysis is ≤ −𝟕. 𝟎𝐤𝐜𝐚𝐥/𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞. (A) Glucose 1-phosphate, Adenosine triphosphate, Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (B) Creatine phosphate, Acetyl phosphate, Succinyl CoA (C) Glycerol 3-phosphate, Acetyl CoA, 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (D) Glucose 6-phosphate, Phosphoenolpyruvate, Adenosine diphosphate

High-Energy Compounds in Biochemistry

Q.35 Polypeptides are biosynthesized on the ribosomes inside the cell. Chemical synthesis of polypeptides is also possible through Merrifield's solid-phase peptide synthesis. In both the cases the polypeptide chain is extended one amino acid at a time. The direction of polypeptide synthesis is from (A) C-terminus to N-terminus in both the cases (B) N-terminus to C-terminus in both the cases (C) C-terminus to N -terminus on the ribosomes and N -terminus to C -terminus in solid-phase synthesis (D) N-terminus to C-terminus on the ribosomes and C-terminus to N-terminus in solid-phase synthesis 

Direction of Polypeptide Synthesis

Q.34 The fluidity of a phospholipid membrane increases when the fatty acid (A) chain length increases and degree of unsaturation decreases (B) chain length decreases and degree of unsaturation increases (C) chain length decreases and degree of unsaturation decreases (D) chain length increases and degree of unsaturation increases

How Fatty Acid Chain Length and Unsaturation Affect Membrane Fluidity

Q.33 Molar absorption spectra labeled (i), (ii) and (iii) for three different amino acids are shown below. Which one of the following is the correct combination of spectral assignments? (A) (i) - tryptophan, (ii) - tyrosine, (iii) - phenylalanine (B) (i) - phenylalanine, (ii) - tryptophan, (iii) - tyrosine (C) (i) - proline, (ii) - tyrosine, (iii) - tryptophan (D) (i) - tryptophan, (ii) - proline, (iii) - phenylalanine

Molar Absorption Spectra of Amino Acids

Q.32 Cellulose serves as a structural polymer whereas starch does not. This is because cellulose contains (A) 𝛽1 → 4 linked glucose monomers and inter-chain hydrogen bonds (B) 𝛽1 → 4 linked glucose monomers and intra-chain hydrogen bonds (C) 𝛼1 → 4 linked glucose monomers and inter-chain hydrogen bonds (D) 𝛼1 → 4 linked glucose monomers and intra-chain hydrogen bonds

Cellulose vs Starch

Q.31 Amino acid residues predominantly involved in protein-DNA interactions are (A) alanines (B) negatively charged (C) prolines (D) positively charged

Protein–DNA Interactions

Q.30 Gel filtration profile and corresponding activity data for a pure enzyme are shown in the figure below. The same enzyme sample on SDS-PAGE runs as a 30 kDa polypeptide. Which one of the following is the correct interpretation of the data? (A) Both monomer and dimer are active (B) Enzyme is active only as a monomer (C) Protein does not form dimers (D) Enzyme is active only as a dimer

Gel Filtration Profile and Enzyme Activity

Q.29 Inter-conversion of UDP-glucose and UDP-galactose is catalyzed by (A) an oxidase (B) a kinase (C) an epimerase (D) a mutase 

UDP-Glucose and UDP-Galactose Interconversion

Q.28 Hydrolysis of a peptide involves cleavage of the bond between the atoms (A) N and C𝛼 (B) C and O (C) C𝛼 and C (D) N and C

Hydrolysis of Peptide Bond

Q. 27 Phosphoglucose isomerase was incubated with 0.2 M of glucose 6-phosphate. On reaching equilibrium, 𝟓𝟓% of glucose 6 -phosphate was converted to fructose 6 -phosphate. The equilibrium constant for this reaction is ____ .

Phosphoglucose Isomerase Equilibrium Constant

Q.26 Heterologous expression of green fluorescent protein is possible because the genetic code is (A) universal (B) triplet (C) degenerate (D) non-overlapping

Heterologous Expression of Green Fluorescent Protein

Q.25 For propene at 298 K, the molar enthalpy of hydrogenation is −124.27 kJ mol−1 and the standard enthalpy of formation is 20.42 kJ mol−1. For propane at 298 K, the standard enthalpy of formation in kJ mol−1 is ______.

Enthalpy of Formation of Propane from Propene

Q.24 For a weak acid at 298 K, the molar conductivities (in ohm−1 m2 mol−1), at infinite dilution and 0.04 mol dm−3 are 4.3 × 10−3 and 1.0 × 10−3, respectively. The degree of dissociation of the acid (0.04 mol dm−3) at 298 K is ______.

Degree of Dissociation from Molar Conductivity

Q. 23 The major product formed in the following reaction is

Major Product of Hydroboration

Q. 22 When 1.0 g of urea (Molecular Weight = 𝟔𝟎 ) is dissolved in 200 g of solvent 𝐒, the freezing point of 𝐒 is lowered by 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓∘𝐂. When 1.5 g of a non-electrolyte 𝐘 is dissolved in 125 g of 𝐒, the freezing point of 𝐒 is lowered by 𝟎. 𝟐𝟎∘𝐂. The molecular weight of 𝐘 is ____ .

Freezing Point Depression Numerical

Q.21 The major product formed in the following reaction is (ignore product stereochemistry)

Major Product of I₂/NaHCO₃ Reaction

Q. 20 Ferrous sulfate on reaction with potassium hexacyanochromate(III) produces a brick red complex. The number of unpaired electrons on Fe in the red complex is ____ .

Ferrous Sulfate and Potassium Hexacyanochromate(III)

Q. 19 The correct statement is (A) TlBr3 is less soluble in water than TlBr (B) Ag2 S is more soluble in water than Ag2O (C) LiF is less stable than CsF (D) [Co(NH3)5I]2+ is less stable than [Co(NH3)5 F]2+

Stability and Solubility

Q. 18 The crystal field stabilization energy (excluding pairing energy, if any) of [𝐂𝐨𝐂𝐥𝟒]𝟐− in 𝚫𝐨 units is ____ .

Crystal Field Stabilization Energy of [CoCl4]2−

Q.17 Given: The potential energy of two electrons separated by the Bohr radius is 27.211 eV. The first Bohr radius of hydrogen is 0.5292 Å. The electron makes an orbit of radius 0.5295 Å around the nucleus in hydrogen. The calculated ionization energy (in eV) of the hydrogen atom is __________.

Ionization Energy of Hydrogen from Bohr Radius Data

Q.16 The correct comparison of pKa’s of [Fe(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]3+, V2O5 and N2O5 is: (A) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ < [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and V2O5 < N2O5 (B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ < [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and V2O5 = N2O5 (C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ = [Fe(H2O)6]3+ and N2O5 < V2O5 (D) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ < [Fe(H2O)6]2+ and N2O5 < V2O5

pKa Comparison of [Fe(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]3+, V2O5 and N2O5

Q.15 Combinations of a process and equation are given below. The INCORRECT combination is (A) Constant pressure heating with no phase change; w = − ∫12 P dV (B) Reversible adiabatic process in a perfect gas; ΔU = ∫12 Cp(T) dT (C) Reversible isothermal process in a perfect gas; wrev = − ∫ P dV (D) Constant volume heating with no phase change; ΔU = ∫12 Cv dT

Correct Process–Equation Combination

Q.14 For an enzyme catalyzed reaction, the plot that correctly represents the relationship between the rate and temperature is

Effect of Temperature on Enzyme-Catalyzed Reactions

Q.13 ‘A harmful substance persists in the environment for a very long period of time’. The UNACCEPTABLE statement for this fact is (A) the substance degrades by second-order kinetics (B) the substance degrades by first-order kinetics (C) the substance is not biodegradable (D) the substance has long half-life

Environmental Persistence and Kinetics

Q.12 The total number of chair conformations possible for 1,2-dimethylcyclohexane is _____.

Chair Conformations of 1,2-Dimethylcyclohexane

Q.11 The species having shortest B–F bond distance is (A) BF3 (B) [BF4]− (C) H3N·BF3 (D) (CH3)2O·BF3

Shortest B–F Bond Length

Q.10 The numeral in the units position of 211870 + 146127 × 3424  is _____.

units digit of 211^870 + 146^127 × 3^424

Q.9 Shaquille O’ Neal is a 60% career free throw shooter, meaning that he successfully makes 60 free throws out of 100 attempts on average. What is the probability that he will successfully make exactly 6 free throws in 10 attempts? (A) 0.2508 (B) 0.2816 (C) 0.2934 (D) 0.6000

Shaquille O’Neal Free Throw Probability

Q.8 Sourya committee had proposed the establishment of Sourya Institutes of Technology (SITs) in line with Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) to cater to the technological and industrial needs of a developing country. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above sentence? Based on the proposal, (i) In the initial years, SIT students will get degrees from IIT. (ii) SITs will have a distinct national objective. (iii) SIT like institutions can only be established in consultation with IIT. (iv) SITs will serve technological needs of a developing country. (A) (iii) and (iv) only. (B) (i) and (iv) only. (C) (ii) and (iv) only. (D) (ii) and (iii) only

Sourya Committee Question

Q.7 A poll of students appearing for masters in engineering indicated that 60 % of the students believed that mechanical engineering is a profession unsuitable for women. A research study on women with masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering found that 99 % of such women were successful in their professions. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above paragraph? (A) Many students have misconceptions regarding various engineering disciplines. (B) Men with advanced degrees in mechanical engineering believe women are well suited to be mechanical engineers. (C) Mechanical engineering is a profession well suited for women with masters or higher degrees in mechanical engineering. (D) The number of women pursuing higher degrees in mechanical engineering is small.

Logical Inference in Mechanical Engineering Poll

Q.6 The following graph represents the installed capacity for cement production (in tonnes) and the actual production (in tonnes) of nine cement plants of a cement company. Capacity utilization of a plant is defined as ratio of actual production of cement to installed capacity. A plant with installed capacity of at least 200 tonnes is called a large plant and a plant with lesser capacity is called a small plant. The difference between total production of large plants and small plants, in tonnes is ____.

Difference between total production of large and small plants

Q.5 If |9y − 6| = 3, then y2 − 4y/3 is ________. (A) 0 (B) +1/3 (C) −1/3 (D) undefined

If |9y – 6| = 3, Then y² – 4y/3

Q.4 R2D2 is a robot. R2D2 can repair aeroplanes. No other robot can repair aeroplanes. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements? (A) R2D2 is a robot which can only repair aeroplanes. (B) R2D2 is the only robot which can repair aeroplanes. (C) R2D2 is a robot which can repair only aeroplanes. (D) Only R2D2 is a robot.

R2D2 Logic Puzzle Answer

Q.3 Pick the odd one out in the following: 13, 23, 33, 43, 53 (A) 23 (B) 33 (C) 43 (D) 53

Odd One Out 13, 23, 33, 43, 53

Q.2 Identify the correct spelling out of the given options: (A) Managable (B) Manageable (C) Mangaeble (D) Managible

Correct Spelling of Manageable

Q.1 The chairman requested the aggrieved shareholders to _________________ him. (A) bare with (B) bore with (C) bear with (D) bare

Chairman Requested Aggrieved Shareholders to Bear With Him

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