Category: IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous Year Question Paper 2021

Category: IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous Year Question Paper 2021

IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous Year Question Paper 2021 – Video Solution & Text Solution for Smart Aspirants

The IIT JAM Biotechnology (BT) 2021 question paper clearly established one fact: IIT JAM now rewards analytical precision more than surface-level theory. Candidates who depended only on notes struggled, while those who practiced previous year question papers with proper video and text solutions performed significantly better.

In this in-depth article, Let’s Talk Academy explains the importance of IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2021, how to use video solutions and written explanations, and why this paper is crucial for upcoming IIT JAM aspirants.

IIT JAM Biotechnology 2021 – What Made This Paper Different?

The IIT JAM Biotechnology paper of 2021 was designed to test clarity of fundamentals, numerical accuracy, and interpretation skills rather than memory.

Key Observations from the 2021 Paper:

  • NAT questions dominated the scoring section

  • Multi-step numericals replaced direct formula-based problems

  • Biotechnology techniques were tested through logical outcomes

  • MCQs focused on concept elimination, not facts

This shift explains why IIT JAM BT 2021 video solutions are in high demand.

IIT JAM Biotechnology 2021 Exam Pattern (PYQ-Based Insight)

Section Question Type Focus Area
Section A MCQ Concept clarity + logic
Section B MSQ Multi-concept understanding
Section C NAT Numerical reasoning

📌 Section C played a decisive role in rank determination, making guided solutions essential.

Subject-Wise Weightage in IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2021

Molecular Biology & Genetics

  • Regulation of gene expression

  • Transcription and translation numericals

  • Genetic crosses with analytical reasoning

✔️ Questions tested depth of understanding, not definitions.

Biochemistry

  • Enzyme kinetics and inhibition models

  • Metabolic pathway calculations

  • Protein structure and energetics

✔️ One of the most scoring yet mistake-prone sections.

Cell Biology

  • Cell cycle and checkpoint control

  • Signal transduction pathways

  • Transport mechanisms

Biotechnology & Experimental Techniques

  • PCR-based calculations

  • Recombinant DNA logic

  • Experimental result prediction

✔️ These questions demand visual explanation, making video solutions far superior to plain answer keys.

Why IIT JAM Biotechnology 2021 Video Solutions Are a Game Changer

Many students read written answers but fail to develop exam-oriented thinking. IIT JAM BT 2021 video solutions help aspirants understand:

  • How to break down complex questions

  • How to choose and apply formulas correctly

  • Where students commonly make calculation errors

  • How IIT JAM expects you to think

At Let’s Talk Academy, video solutions are designed to teach approach, not shortcuts.

Importance of IIT JAM Biotechnology 2021 Text (Written) Solutions

Text solutions are equally important and are best used for:

  • Rapid revision before exams

  • Note-making and formula consolidation

  • Re-solving PYQs independently

  • Strengthening weak topics

👉 Ideal study flow:
Attempt PYQ → Watch video solution → Revise with text solution → Reattempt without help.

How to Use IIT JAM BT 2021 PYQ Effectively

Step 1: Treat It as a Real Exam

Solve the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2021 question paper in one sitting with a timer.

Step 2: Analyze with Video Solutions

Focus on:

  • Concept gaps

  • Numerical mistakes

  • Time-consuming questions

Step 3: Convert PYQs into Concepts

Each PYQ should become a revision-ready concept, not a forgotten question.

Common Mistakes While Studying IIT JAM 2021 PYQs

  • Watching video solutions before attempting

  • Ignoring NAT-type numericals

  • Memorizing steps instead of understanding logic

  • Skipping revision of solved PYQs

Let’s Talk Academy addresses these issues through structured PYQ-based discussion and mentoring.

Why Let’s Talk Academy for IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ Video Solutions?

Let’s Talk Academy follows a PYQ-first, exam-aligned preparation strategy, trusted by Life Science aspirants nationwide.

What You Get:

  • Dedicated IIT JAM Biotechnology 2021 video solution series

  • Clear and concise text solution PDFs

  • Strong focus on numerical problem-solving

  • Integrated guidance for IIT JAM + CSIR NET Life Science

  • Concept-driven, result-oriented teaching

Final Perspective

The IIT JAM Biotechnology previous year question paper 2021 is not just another PYQ—it is a reflection of the modern JAM exam mindset. When studied with expert video solutions and well-structured text explanations, it becomes a powerful tool for rank improvement and confidence building.

If you are targeting IIT JAM Biotechnology selection, mastering PYQ 2021 under expert guidance from Let’s Talk Academy is a strategic advantage you should not overlook.

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IIT JAM Biotechnology Previous Year Question Paper 2022 – Complete Video Solution & Text Explanation Guide

The IIT JAM Biotechnology (BT) 2022 question paper is widely regarded as a transition paper—one that clearly separated conceptual learners from exam-oriented problem solvers. Candidates who relied only on theory found it challenging, while those who practiced previous year question papers with structured video and text solutions gained a clear advantage.

In this detailed resource, Let’s Talk Academy presents a complete preparation guide for IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2022, explaining how to use video solutions, written explanations, and PYQ analysis to strengthen accuracy and rank.

Why IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2022 Is a Must-Practice Paper

The IIT JAM Biotechnology paper of 2022 reflected the mature phase of the JAM exam pattern, where:

  • Numerical problem-solving dominated scoring sections

  • Conceptual understanding was tested through application, not recall

  • Biotechnology techniques appeared in logic-based experimental formats

  • Even MCQs required multi-step thinking

This makes IIT JAM BT 2022 video solutions extremely important for aspirants targeting top ranks.

IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 Exam Pattern (PYQ-Based Understanding)

Section Question Format What IIT JAM Tested
Section A MCQ Concept clarity + elimination
Section B MSQ Multi-concept accuracy
Section C NAT Numerical reasoning & precision

📌 Section C (NAT) again proved to be the rank-determining segment, reinforcing the value of step-by-step solution guidance.

Topic-Wise Insights from IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ 2022

Molecular Biology & Genetics

  • Regulation of gene expression

  • Transcription–translation numericals

  • Classical genetics with logic-based outcomes

✔️ Questions demanded conceptual depth, not memorized pathways.

Biochemistry

  • Enzyme kinetics and inhibition models

  • Metabolic pathway calculations

  • Protein structure and energetics

✔️ One of the highest-weightage areas in the 2022 paper.

Cell Biology

  • Cell cycle control mechanisms

  • Signal transduction pathways

  • Membrane transport systems

Biotechnology & Experimental Techniques

  • PCR efficiency and calculation-based questions

  • Recombinant DNA strategy

  • Interpretation of experimental results

✔️ These questions are best understood through visual explanation, making video solutions significantly more effective than static answers.

Importance of IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 Video Solutions

Simply checking answers is not enough for IIT JAM-level preparation. IIT JAM BT 2022 video solutions help aspirants:

  • Understand how to approach complex numericals

  • Learn question interpretation techniques

  • Avoid common calculation and logic errors

  • Develop an exam-oriented mindset

At Let’s Talk Academy, video solutions are designed to replicate the thinking process expected in the actual exam, not shortcut methods.

Role of IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 Text (Written) Solutions

Text solutions play a complementary and essential role by enabling:

  • Fast revision before the exam

  • Creation of concise notes

  • Formula consolidation

  • Independent re-solving of PYQs

👉 Recommended workflow:
Attempt PYQ → Watch video solution → Revise with text solution → Reattempt without support.

How to Use IIT JAM BT 2022 PYQ for Maximum Output

Step 1: Full-Length Attempt

Solve the IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 question paper in one sitting under exam conditions.

Step 2: Video-Based Analysis

Identify:

  • Conceptual gaps

  • Calculation mistakes

  • Time-consuming areas

Step 3: Concept Conversion

Turn every PYQ into a revision-ready concept applicable across multiple exams.

Common Mistakes Students Make with IIT JAM 2022 PYQs

  • Watching video solutions without attempting questions

  • Ignoring NAT-type numericals

  • Memorizing steps instead of understanding logic

  • Skipping revision of solved PYQs

Let’s Talk Academy systematically addresses these gaps through structured PYQ discussion and revision cycles.

Why Let’s Talk Academy for IIT JAM Biotechnology PYQ Video Solutions?

Let’s Talk Academy is recognized for its PYQ-centric and exam-aligned preparation model in Life Sciences.

What Students Gain:

  • Dedicated IIT JAM Biotechnology 2022 video solution series

  • Clear and exam-focused text solution PDFs

  • Strong emphasis on numerical accuracy

  • Integrated preparation for IIT JAM and CSIR NET Life Science

  • Concept-driven, result-oriented mentorship

Final Summary

The IIT JAM Biotechnology previous year question paper 2022 is not just a past exam—it is a blueprint of modern IIT JAM expectations. When analyzed using expert video solutions and structured text explanations, PYQs become the most reliable tool for rank improvement and confidence building.

If your goal is success in IIT JAM Biotechnology, mastering PYQ 2022 under expert guidance from Let’s Talk Academy gives you a decisive competitive edge.

Q.60 The velocity of blood in a blood vessel of 2.0 cm radius is 30 cm/s. When the blood vessel bifurcates into 2 smaller vessels of radius 1.0 cm each, the velocity of blood in each of the smaller vessels is _____ cm/s. Assume that the vessel walls are rigid, and blood is incompressible.

Blood Vessel Bifurcation

Q.59 The equation sin 𝜃/2 (sin𝜃/2+cos𝜃/2)= 𝛽 has a solution, where 𝛽 is a natural number. Then 𝛽 is _______.

Trigonometric Equation Solved

Q.58 In the circuit shown below, the power dissipated across the 3 resistor is _____ W.

Power Dissipated Across 3 Ohm Resistor in Series–Parallel Circuit with 30 V Source

Q.57 In a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, for gene-X only two alleles, namely A and a, are found. If frequency of allele A is 0.2 and the frequency of allele a is 0.8, the frequency of the heterozygote genotype Aa in that population will be _____ (correct to 2 decimal places).

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium Heterozygote Frequency Calculation (p=0.2, q=0.8)

Q.56 In a compound microscope, the magnification power of the objective lens is 100x, and that of the eye piece (ocular lens) is 10x. The magnification power of the microscope is _____ x.

Compound Microscope Magnification Power

Q.55 A double helical DNA molecule is composed of 32 mol % of adenosine. The mol % of cytosine in this DNA molecule is _____.

Double Helical DNA 32 Mol% Adenosine Cytosine Percentage

Q.54 While performing a PCR, the student forgot to add one of the two primers. The number of molecules of single-stranded DNA produced after 25 PCR cycles is ____

PCR One Primer Missing

Q.53 The number of polypeptide chains in a core nucleosome is ____.

Number of Polypeptide Chains in a Core Nucleosome

Q.52 The number of chiral carbons in strychnine is ______.

Number of Chiral Carbons in Strychnine Explained

Q.51 At 25°C and pH 7.0, the concentrations of glucose 1-phosphate and glucose 6-phosphate are 2.0 mM and 38 mM, respectively at equilibrium. The standard free energy change for the conversion of glucose 1-phosphate to glucose 6-phosphate is ____ J/mol. [R = 8.315 J mol−1 K−1]

Standard Free Energy Change of Glucose 1-Phosphate to Glucose 6-Phosphate at 25°C and pH 7

Q.50 The distance between the parallel lines 2𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 7 and 2𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 15 is ______ (rounded off to 2 decimals).

Distance Between Parallel Lines 2x + 5y = 7 and 2x + 5y = 15

Q.49 The de Broglie wavelength of a proton moving at a speed of 1.0 m/s is _____ Å. [Planck’s constant = 6.626 x 10-34 m2kg/s; mp = 1.67 x 10-27 kg]

De Broglie Wavelength of Proton at 1.0 m/s

Q.48 The maximum number of genotypes possible for gametes formed from a diploid cell of the genotype AaBBcCDd is _____.

Maximum Gametes from AaBBcCDd Genotype

Q.47 When the molecular weight of human immunoglobulin light chain is 24 kDa, the total molecular weight of human IgG is ___ kDa.Human IgG consists of two heavy chains and two light chains, with a total molecular weight of 148 kDa when each light chain is 24 kDa. This calculation accounts for standard heavy chain weights of approximately 50 kDa each. The structure forms a Y-shaped tetramer essential for immune function.

Human IgG Molecular Weight

Q.46 The number of peptide bonds in a 20-residue linear peptide is ___.

Number of Peptide Bonds in a 20-Residue Linear Peptide

Q.45 The number of triplet codon(s) for methionine is ___.

Number of Triplet Codons for Methionine

Q.44 The molar concentration of water in pure water is ____ M (rounded off to 1 decimal).

Molarity of Pure Water

Q.43 The amount of hydrogen required to reduce 30 g of 2-butene is ______ g (rounded off to 2 decimals).

Hydrogen Required for 2-Butene Reduction

Q.42 For a gene present on human chromosome 4, the maximum number of alleles that may be detected by sequencing the genome of 5 males and 10 females is ______.Chromosome 4 in humans is an autosome, so both males and females carry two copies of any gene on it. Sequencing genomes from 5 males (each with 2 alleles) and 10 females (each with 2 alleles) provides a total of 30 alleles, allowing detection of up to 30 distinct variants if all differ.

Maximum Alleles on Human Chromosome 4: 5 Males 10 Females Sequencing Explained

Q.41 1.45 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) is dissolved in 30.0 ml of water. Molality (rounded off to 3 decimals) of the resulting solution is _____ m.

Sucrose Molality Calculation

Q.40 A function 𝑓: 𝐷 → ℝ is defined as 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥2+1 𝑥2+𝑥+1, where 𝐷 ⊆ ℝ is the domain. The domain(s) on which the function 𝑓(𝑥) is one to one is/are (A) Natural numbers (B) Integers (C) Rational numbers (D) Irrational numbers

One–One Nature of f(x) = (x² + 1)/(x² + x + 1)

Q.39 A charged particle accelerated by a potential V moves in a circular path with a velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B that is perpendicular to the motion. Which of the following is/are correct if the value of V is increased? (A) Kinetic energy of the particle increases (B) Radius of the circular path increases (C) Time period of the motion increases (D) Work done by the magnetic field increases

Charged Particle in Magnetic Field

Q.38 Which of the following pairs is/are analogous structures? (A) Human hands and bat wings (B) Butterfly wings and bat wings (C) Bat wings and bird wings (D) Dolphin flippers and fish fins

Analogous Structures Examples

Q.37 Which of the following is/are involved in the initiation of DNA replication? (A) RhoA (B) oriC (C) Sigma factor (D) DnaA

DNA Replication Initiation

Q.36 Which of the following molecular genetic technique(s) is/are used in forensic science? (A) Coimmunoprecipitation (B) DNA fingerprinting (C) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (D) Electrophoretic mobility shift assay

Molecular Genetic Techniques in Forensic Science

Q.35 Which of the following is/are common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression? (A) Coupled transcription and translation (B) Post-translational modification (C) Genetic code (D) Presence of the sequence TATA in the promoter

Prokaryotic vs Eukaryotic Gene Expression

Q.34 Which of the following is/are TRUE about the electron carrier, ubiquinone (coenzyme Q)? (A) Its ability to accept two electrons, one at a time, enables ubiquinone to function at the junction between a 2-electron donor and a 1-electron acceptor (B) Being small and hydrophobic, ubiquinone readily shuttles between protein-based electron transfer complexes within the membrane (C) Its hydrophilic nature and high affinity for protons enable ubiquinone to transport protons readily within the intermembrane space of mitochondria. (D) Its ability to interact with Heme C of cytochromes enables electron transport in the mitochondrial membrane

Ubiquinone (Coenzyme Q) in Electron Transport Chain

Q.33 Cyclic AMP (cAMP) acts as a second messenger for which of the following primary signaling molecule(s)? (A) Retinoic acid (B) Prostaglandins (C) Cortisol (D) Epinephrine

cAMP as Second Messenger for Epinephrine

Q.32 Oleic acid, shown below, is (A) A saturated fatty acid (B) An unsaturated fatty acid (C) Insoluble in water (D) Soluble in acetoneOleic acid in this question is an unsaturated fatty acid that is insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents like acetone.

Oleic Acid MCQ

Q.31 Infrared (IR) spectroscopy is used for determining certain aspects of the structure of organic compounds. Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE? (A) IR radiation induces electronic transitions (B) IR peak intensities are related to molecular mass (C) Most organic functional groups absorb in a characteristic region of the IR spectrum (D) Each element absorbs at a characteristic wavelengthIR spectroscopy identifies organic compound structures by detecting vibrational transitions in functional groups. The false statements in the query are (A), (B), and (D).

IR Spectroscopy

Q.30 The difference between mitosis and meiosis I is (A) Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, whereas homologous chromosomes separate in meiosis I (B) The nuclear membrane is absent during mitotic metaphase, but not in meiotic metaphase (C) The DNA is double helical in meiosis I but not in mitosis (D) Unlike in mitotic metaphase, chromosomes do not align at the equatorial plate in meiosis I

Difference Between Mitosis and Meiosis I

Q.29 In mammals, females have two X chromosomes and males have one X chromosome. Equal expression of X-chromosome genes in both sexes is ensured by (A) Dosage compensation (B) Histone code (C) RNA silencing (D) Heterochromatin formation

Dosage Compensation in Mammals

Q.28 Match the cell junctions listed in Group A with their correct functions listed in Group B: Group A                                                      Group B (I). Adherens junction                       (P). Joins actin bundles in neighboring cells (II). Desmosome                                (Q). Joins intermediate filaments in neighboring cells (III). Tight junction                         (R). Seals neighboring cells (IV). Gap junction                            (S). Allows diffusion of molecules between adjacent cells (A) I-S; II-P; III-Q; IV-R (B) I-Q, II-R; III-P; IV-S (C) I-Q; II-R; III-S; IV-P (D) I-P; II-Q; III-R; IV-S

Cell Junctions Matching: Adherens, Desmosome, Tight & Gap Junction Functions

Q.27 The lack of linear correlation between the genome sizes and genetic complexities among various species is known as (A) C-value paradox (B) Genetic diversity (C) G-value paradox (D) Central dogma

C-Value Paradox Explained

Q.26 In plants, the ovules are attached to the ovary by (A) Placenta (B) Synergids (C) Embryo sac (D) Tube cells

Ovules Attached to Ovary by Placenta in Plants

Q.25 The value of the integral ∫ (𝑥 − 𝑓(𝑥)) 4 0 𝑑𝑥, where 𝑓(𝑥) = { 0, 0 ≤ 𝑥 < 1 1, 1 ≤ 𝑥 < 2 2, 2 ≤ 𝑥 < 3 3, 3 ≤ 𝑥 < 4 4, 4 ≤ 𝑥 < 5 , is (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) −1 (D) −2

Step-by-step solution of integral ∫₀⁴ (x − f(x)) dx with piecewise function

Q.24 If 𝑥+1/x=1, then the value of x^6+1/x^6 is (A) −2 (B) −1 (C) 1 (D) 2

If x + 1/x = 1 then x6 + 1/x6 = -2

Q.23 A stationary enemy ship is docked in the sea at a distance of 1.0 km from the coastline. A gun located at the sea level on the coastline can fire projectiles at a velocity of 120 m/s. What is the angle (in degrees) above the horizontal at which the gun must fire to hit the ship? [g = 9.8 m/s2] (A) 21.4 (B) 42.9 (C) 23.6 (D) 47.1

Gun Fires Projectile at 120 m/s to Hit Ship 1 km Away

Q.22 Which one of the following represents the motion of an object with a positive acceleration?

Positive Acceleration

Q.21 Which one of the following microscopic techniques provides a 3-dimensional perspective of live, unstained and transparent specimens obtained from the wild? (A) Confocal microscopy (B) Fluorescence microscopy (C) Phase contrast microscopy (D) Differential interference contrast (Nomarski) microscopy

3d-perspective-live-unstained-transparent-specimens-microscopy

Q.20 Which one of the following processes emerged earliest during the course of evolution? (A) Antigen presentation (B) Antibody production (C) Phagocytosis (D) Thymic education

Earliest Evolved Immune Process

Q.19 Presence of which one of the following in the urine indicates pregnancy in human? (A) Progesterone (B) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone (C) Estrogen (D) Human chorionic gonadotropin

Presence of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin in Urine Indicates Pregnancy

Q.18 What is the role of bile salts in the mammalian digestive system? (A) Bile salts convert pepsinogen to pepsin, and thus facilitate protein digestion (B) Bile salts emulsify fat, and thus aid in fat digestion (C) Bile salts are excretory products produced by the liver, and do not participate in digestion (D) Bile salts facilitate digestion of all types of macromolecules in the small intestine

Role of Bile Salts in Mammalian Digestive System

Q.17 What is the significance of the isomerization of glucose 6-phosphate to fructose 6-phosphate for the progression of glycolysis? (A) As functional groups, ketones are more reactive than aldehydes (B) Cleavage of glucose 1,6-bisphosphate will not yield dihydroxy acetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (C) The carbonyl group at carbon-2 (C-2) in fructose facilitates the cleavage of the bond between C-3 and C-4 (D) Phosphorylation of glucose 6-phosphate to glucose 1,6-bisphosphate is irreversible

Significance of Glucose 6-Phosphate to Fructose 6-Phosphate Isomerization in Glycolysis

Q.16 Which one of the following isomers is thermodynamically most stable?

Most Stable Cyclohexane Isomer

Q.15 Which one of the following is the major product of the hydrogenation reaction given below?

Major product of H₂/Pd‑C hydrogenation of bicyclic acetal

Q.14 The following methylation is carried out in various solvents such as benzene, tetrahydrofuran (THF), dimethoxyethane (DME), dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) and N,N-dimethylformamide (DMF). Which one of the following is TRUE for the effect of solvent on the reaction rate? (A) DMSO > DMF > DME > THF > Benzene (B) Benzene > THF > DME > DMF > DMSO (C) DME > DMSO > DMF > THF > Benzene (D) THF > Benzene > DME > DMSO > DMF

Solvent Effect on Enolate Methylation

Q.13 Which one of the following features/properties does glucose acquire through intramolecular hemiacetal formation? (A) Ability to function as a reducing agent (B) An additional chiral carbon (C) Ability to form anhydride linkage with non-carbohydrate moieties such as the inorganic phosphate (D) Ability to form epimers

Glucose Intramolecular Hemiacetal Formation

Q.12 IUPAC name of the following molecule is (A) 3-Bromo-3,5-dimethyl hexane (B) 4-Bromo-2,4-dimethyl hexane (C) 3-Bromo-2-isobutyl butane (D) 4-Bromo-2-methyl-4-ethyl pentane

IUPAC Naming of 4‑Bromo‑2,4‑dimethylhexane

Q.11 In a genetic cross between plants bearing violet flowers and green seeds (VVGG), and white flower and yellow seeds (vvgg), the following phenotypic distribution was obtained in the F2 progeny (assume both parents to be pure breeding for both the traits, and self-cross at F1 generation): i) 2340 plants with violet flowers and green seeds ii) 47 plants with violet flowers and yellow seeds iii) 43 plants with white flowers and green seeds iv) 770 plants with white flowers and yellow seeds Which one of the following interpretations explains the above phenotypic distribution? (A) Same genes control both flower and seed colors (B) Genes for flower and seed colors are genetically interacting (C) Genes for flower and seed colors are present on the same chromosome (D) Flower color in this plant species is a polygenic trait

Genetic Linkage Analysis

Q.10 Let 𝐴 = (2 1 1 1) and 𝐵 = (2 −5 0 1 ). If 𝐴𝑋 + 3𝐵 = 0, then the determinant of 𝑋 is (A) −18 (B) −6 (C) 6 (D) 18

Determinant of Matrix X from Equation AX+3B=0

Q.9 The moment of force in terms of fundamental dimensions is (A) MLT−1 (B) MLT−2 (C) ML−1T−1 (D) ML2T−2

Dimensional Formula of Moment of Force

Q.8 Which one of the following components of bacterial cell acts as endotoxin? (A) Peptidoglycan of Gram-positive bacteria (B) Lipopolysaccharide (C) Porins (D) Peptidoglycan of Gram-negative bacteria

 Bacterial Endotoxin

Q.7 The type of immunological protection provided by plasma therapy is (A) Natural active (B) Natural passive (C) Artificial active (D) Artificial passive

 Plasma Therapy Immunological Protection

Q.6 Bacterial strains that do not grow in the absence of a specific nutrient are called (A) Heterotrophs (B) Chemotrophs (C) Autotrophs (D) Auxotrophs

Auxotrophs in Bacteria

Q.5 Ecosystem ecology is the study of (A) An organism’s behavior towards environmental challenges (B) Factors that affect the interactions of individuals in a population (C) Interactions among biotic and abiotic components (D) Factors that affect the interactions among communities in an ecosystem

Study of Biotic and Abiotic Interactions in Ecosystems

Q.4 Which one of the following features distinguishes between gymnosperms and angiosperms? (A) Seed formation (B) Vascular tissues (C) Seed cover (D) Gamete production

Gymnosperms vs Angiosperms

Q.3 If the blood groups of mother and father are AB and O, respectively, what are the blood groups possible for their child? (A) AB or A (B) AB (C) A or B (D) AB, A, B or O

Blood Groups Possible for Child of AB Mother and O Father

Q.2 Ethylbutyrate is responsible for the odor of pineapple. Which one of the following is the structure of ethyl butyrate?

Structure of Ethyl Butyrate

Q.1 An acid contains C, H and O atoms. On combustion analysis, 0.454 g of the acid gives 0.418 g of H2O and 1.023 g of CO2. What is the empirical formula of the acid? (A) C4H5O2 (B) C3H6O (C) CH2O (D) C5H8

Combustion Analysis Empirical Formula

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